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QUESTION 1
Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication

A.    1 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
What is a risk analysis used for?

A.    A risk analysis is used to express the value of information for an organization in monetary terms.
B.    A risk analysis is used to clarify to management their responsibilities.
C.    A risk analysis is used in conjunction with security measures to reduce risks to an acceptable level.
D.    A risk analysis is used to ensure that security measures are deployed in a cost-effective and timely fashion.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following are reasons that Home Working can reduce your carbon footprint?
a) It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
b) It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
c) It reduces the space needed within the office.
d) It reduces the power consumed during meetings.

A.    b and c only.
B.    a and d only.
C.    a and c only.
D.    c and d only.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?

A.    It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered certification body once a year.
B.    It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C.    It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it is being delivered.
D.    It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You employ a few people who, while waiting to make a delivery, can carry out other tasks. You notice, however, that they use this time to send and read their private mail and surf the Internet. In legal terms, in which way can the use of the Internet and e-mail facilities be best regulated?

A.    Installing an application that makes certain websites no longer accessible and that filters attachments in e-mails
B.    Drafting a code of conduct for the use of the Internet and e-mail in which the rights and obligations of both the employer and staff are set down
C.    Implementing privacy regulations
D.    Installing a virus scanner

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is a risk analysis used for?

A.    A risk analysis is used to express the value of information for an organization in monetary terms.
B.    A risk analysis is used to clarify to management their responsibilities.
C.    A risk analysis is used in conjunction with security measures to reduce risks to an acceptable level.
D.    A risk analysis is used to ensure that security measures are deployed in a cost-effective and timely fashion.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have just started working at a large organization. You have been asked to sign a code of conduct as well as a contract. What does the organization wish to achieve with this?

A.    A code of conduct helps to prevent the misuse of IT facilities.
B.    A code of conduct is a legal obligation that organizations have to meet.
C.    A code of conduct prevents a virus outbreak.
D.    A code of conduct gives staff guidance on how to report suspected misuses of IT facilities.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. On the basis of your risk analysis you have decided to take a number of measures. You have daily backups made of the server, keep the server room locked and install an intrusion alarm system and a sprinkler system. Which of these measures is a detective measure?

A.    Backup tape
B.    Intrusion alarm
C.    Sprinkler installation
D.    Access restriction to special rooms

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
There was a fire in a branch of the company Midwest Insurance. The fire department quickly arrived at the scene and could extinguish the fire before it spread and burned down the entire premises. The server, however, was destroyed in the fire. The backup tapes kept in another room had melted and many other documents were lost for good. What is an example of the indirect damage caused by this fire?

A.    Melted backup tapes
B.    Burned computer systems
C.    Burned documents
D.    Water damage due to the fire extinguishers

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are the owner of a growing company, SpeeDelivery, which provides courier services. You decide that it is time to draw up a risk analysis for your information system. This includes an inventory of the threats and risks. What is the relation between a threat, risk and risk analysis?

A.    A risk analysis identifies threats from the known risks.
B.    A risk analysis is used to clarify which threats are relevant and what risks they involve.
C.    A risk analysis is used to remove the risk of a threat.
D.    Risk analyses help to find a balance between threats and risks.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which is a legislative or regulatory act related to information security that can be imposed upon all organizations?

A.    ISO/IEC 27001:2005
B.    Intellectual Property Rights
C.    ISO/IEC 27002:2005
D.    Personal data protection legislation

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You have carried out a risk analysis and now want to determine your risk strategy. You decide to take measures for the large risks but not for the small risks. What is this risk strategy called?

A.    Risk bearing
B.    Risk avoiding
C.    Risk neutral

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What action is an unintentional human threat?

A.    Arson
B.    Theft of a laptop
C.    Social engineering
D.    Incorrect use of fire extinguishing equipment

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
What is a description of Governance?

A.    How IT resources will be used to meet goals and deliver business value
B.    a process that ensures individualsare aware of regulations, policies, and procedures that must be followed as a result of senior management decisions management
C.    Who holds the authority to make decisions, determines accountability for actions and responsibility for outcomes, and addresses how expected performance will be evaluated
D.    Possible adverse impacts on reaching goals and can arise from actions taken or not taken

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A.    NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B.    NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C.    The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D.    With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is OpenID used for?

A.    to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B.    to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C.    to pay on-line via your own bank account
D.    to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?

A.    by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B.    by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C.    by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D.    by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?

A.    because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B.    because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C.    because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D.    because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is an example of the use of location information?

A.    to determine the user’s native language
B.    to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C.    to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D.    to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system

Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Failover is the capacity to switch, often automatically, to another system or resource in the event of a failure. How does failover assist in the provision of cloud services?

A.    It assists providers in ensuring continuity of service when there is a problem.
B.    It automatically restarts the system in case of a failure.
C.    It builds a back-up while the system is active.
D.    It provides hidden storage to be used when needed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?

A.    It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B.    It offers more security at home than at the office.
C.    It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D.    It does not require a network connection.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How might moving to the Cloud have a negative impact on users?

A.    Development is no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
B.    Software licensing is no longer part of operations.
C.    Support and maintenance are no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
D.    Uptimes can be guaranteed but not adjusted in a flexible manner.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is not a staffing benefit of Cloud computing?

A.    Fewer IT-staff
B.    Lower employee benefits
C.    Lower recruitment costs
D.    Lower self-service costs

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which process is an external process for a Cloud data center?

A.    Availability management
B.    Capacity management
C.    Service continuity management
D.    Service level management

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is meant by Virtualization?

A.    Virtualization means that data does not exist anywhere.
B.    Virtualization is a method to combine more computing power onto one server.
C.    Virtualization is a method to combine multiple computer environments onto one server.
D.    Virtualization means that no real computer system is needed to distribute cloud solutions.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?

A.    Define quality responsibilities
B.    Gain acceptance of the project product
C.    Agree acceptance criteria
D.    Set quality tolerances

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which should be provided by a project mandate?

A.    Terms of reference
B.    Detailed Business Case
C.    Stage tolerances
D.    Initiation Stage Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?

A.    Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B.    Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C.    Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D.    Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which should be funded by a change budget?

A.    Increase in agreed scope
B.    Initiation stage
C.    Change Authority
D.    Handover activities

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes a use of a Configuration Item Record?

A.    Define the identification scheme to be applied to the project
B.    Identify the techniques and procedures required within the Work Package
C.    Record the change in a product’s status
D.    Record the reporting requirements for the Work Package

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations?

A.    Produces benefits
B.    Introduces business change
C.    Manages stakeholders
D.    Incurs cost

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager?

A.    Starting up a Project
B.    Managing a Stage Boundary
C.    Managing Product Delivery
D.    Directing a Project

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Where should an off-specification be recorded?

A.    Risk Register
B.    Issue Register
C.    Work Package
D.    Configuration Management Strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
During the Managing a Stage Boundary process what product is updated with estimated costs and time for the stage that is about to begin?

A.    End Stage Report
B.    Team Plan
C.    Work Package
D.    Project Plan

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

A.    Provides a defined structure of accountability, delegation, authority and communication
B.    Includes techniques for critical path analysis and earned value analysis
C.    Enables a Project Manager to be accountable for the success of a project
D.    Prevents any changes once the scope of a project has been agreed

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is FALSE?

A.    A project outcome perceived to be negative by one or more stakeholders is a dis-benefit
B.    A project’s output is any of the project’s specialist products
C.    A project benefit is only realized after the project has closed
D.    A project outcome is the result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which is a responsibility of the managing level within the project management team?

A.    Set project tolerances
B.    Approve stage completion
C.    Ensure that the products are produced within the constraints agreed with the Project Board
D.    Appoint the project management team

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about stakeholders are true?
1. Someone who thinks they will be affected by a project is a stakeholder on that project
2. Stakeholders may be internal or external to the corporate organization

A.    Only 1 is true
B.    Only 2 is true
C.    Both 1 and 2 are true
D.    Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which is a purpose of quality planning?

A.    Define the structure of the project management team
B.    Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project’s product
C.    Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria
D.    Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A.    Incident and financial management
B.    Change and release and deployment management
C.    Incident and event management
D.    Knowledge and service level management

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A.    Change proposal
B.    Change policy
C.    Service request
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
(1) Local service desk
(2) Virtual service desk
(3) IT help desk
(4) Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
(1) To automatically detect service-affecting events
(2) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
(3) To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A.    1 and 2 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1 and 3 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A.    Technical management
B.    Emergency change advisory board
C.    Urgent change board
D.    Urgent change authority

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A.    To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B.    To provide training and certification in project management
C.    To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D.    To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
(1) Those planned to be delivered
(2) Those being delivered
(3) Those that have been withdrawn from service

A.    1 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of an incident is:

A.    An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.    An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C.    Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.    Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A.    Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B.    Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C.    Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D.    What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When can a known error record be raised?
(1) At any time it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found

A.    2 only
B.    1 only
C.    Neither of the above
D.    Both of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A.    The change authorization board
B.    The change advisory board
C.    The change implementer
D.    The change manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Continual service improvement
B.    Change management
C.    Service level management
D.    Availability management

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A.    The value of a service
B.    Governance
C.    Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D.    Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A.    Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B.    Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C.    Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D.    Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A.    Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B.    Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C.    Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D.    Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?

A.    add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B.    modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C.    modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D.    change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from
reaching the ObjectServer

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM)?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( “172.16.25.1”, 8082, 5 ) ;

A.    The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port
8082 to collect its data.
B.    The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
C.    The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port
8082 to collect its data.
D.    The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on
172.16.25 1 port 8082 to collect its data.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?

A.    run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B.    edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C.    edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line
within the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D.    edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the
line within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?

A.    The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B.    The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C.    The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D.    The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A company wants to create a new drop-down list that an operator can use when creating new dynamic network views. The list will hold the customerName and customerLocation information. This information was collected during the discovery phase and added to the model. The administrator has already extended the NCIM database with a new table called Customer which has two fields:
customerName and customerLocation. The model has been configured to populate this new table. Which additional step does the administrator need to take to display the new table in the dropdown list?

A.    add this table to the appropriate section in the topoviz.properties
B.    modify the ncimMetaDataxml file by adding the appropriate table and data fields
C.    modify the DBEntityDetails.cfg file by specifying a new drop-down list and the name of the
table created in the NCIM database
D.    no additional step is required as the network view configuration automatically has access to
all of the tables in the NCIM database and will create a drop-down list for each and every table

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery? (Choose two.)

A.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is checked
B.    ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration >
Partial Rediscovery Agents tab
C.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
Rebuild Layers is unchecked
D.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is checked
E.    ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery
of Related Devices is unchecked

Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which file contains the SNMP community strings and settings for an IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) domain named ITNM NCP?

A.    CtrlServices.ITNM_NCP.cfg
B.    SnmpStackSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg
C.    SnmpStackSecuritylnfo.ITNM_NCP.cfg
D.    DiscoSnmpHelperSchema.ITNM_NCP.cfg

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 administrator received a request to create a new domain with a default set of configuration files and poll policies. A Dbl_ogins.DOMAIN.cfg file has already been created with the appropriate access details. Which action must be taken?

A.    rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN>
B.    rundomain_create.pl -domain <DOMAIN> -default
C.    manually insert the domain details into the ncim.domainMgr table
D.    start the ncp_ctrl process for the new domain name – defaults will be applied

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line installation on a Windows system?

A.    console_install.exe
B.    launchpad_console.exe
C.    launchpad.exe -console
D.    install.exe -i console

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
If NCIM replication is enabled, which statement is true?

A.    Only IBM DB2 can be used for NCIM replication.
B.    Two NCIM databases exist, one in the primary domain and one in the backup domain.
C.    IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) must connect to a pair of virtual ObjectServers.
D.    There will only be one ncp_g_event running for all of ITNM.

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
By default, which three fields are used by the event gateway to link an event to a topology entity? (Choose three.)

A.    @Node
B.    @Class
C.    @bEventld
D.    @Identifier
E.    @LocalPriObj
F.    @LocalNodeAlias

Answer: CEF

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)

A.    The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B.    If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as
the same user.
C.    The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will
run as nonroot.
D.    The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and
will run as non-root.
E.    Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root
account and a non-root account.

Answer: BC
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