Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(41-50)

QUESTION 41
You have a customized image of Windows 7 Professional. You need to create a new unattended file to automate the deployment of the image. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?

A.    Run Imagex.exe and specify the /mount parameter.
B.    Run Dism.exe and specify the /Mount-WIM parameter.
C.    From Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT), add the custom Windows image (WIM).
D.    From Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM), open the custom Windows image (WIM).

Answer: D
Explanation:
Windows SIMOpens Windows images, creates answer files, and manages distribution shares and configuration sets.NOT DismDeployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows?images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating system.NOT ImagexImageX is a command-line tool that enables original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) and corporations to capture, to modify, and to apply file-based disk images for rapid deployment. ImageX works with Windows image (.wim) files for copying to a network, or it can work with other technologies that use .wim images, such as Windows Setup, Windows Deployment Services (Windows DS), and the System Management Server (SMS) Operating System Feature Deployment Pack./mountMounts a .wim file from Windows XP with Service Pack 2 (SP2), Windows Server 2003 with Service Pack 1 (SP1), or Windows Vista with read-only permission to a specified directory. Once the file is mounted, you may view, but not modify, all the information contained in the directory.NOT MDT MDT 2010 is the Microsoft solution accelerator for operating system and application deployment and offers flexible driver management, optimized transaction processing, and access to distribution shares from any location. You can use the MDT on imaging and deployment servers to implement the automatic deployment of Windows 7 (for example) on client computers. It is possible to run MDT 2010 on a client running Windows 7, but in practice it would typically run from a distribution server running Windows Server 2008. The MDT provides detailed guidance and job aids and offers a common deployment console that contains unified tools and processes that you can use for client and server deployment. The toolkit offers standardized desktop and server images, along with improved security and ongoing configuration management.

QUESTION 42
You are deploying a custom Windows 7 system image to a new computer.
You perform the following tasks:
– Start the new computer by using the Windows preinstallation Environment (WPE).
– Connect to a shared network location that contains the Windows 7 image file.
You need to apply the Windows 7 image to the computer. What should you do before you apply the image?

A.    Mount the image.
B.    Configure Windows Firewall.
C.    Configure and format the hard disk drive.
D.    Initializa the Boot Configuration data (BCD) store.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Deploying from a Network Share
After you have imaged your reference installation, you can deploy the image onto new hardware (one or more destination computers). To access a network share as an installation source from the client computer, you need to boot the client computer into the Windows Preintallation Environment (Windows PE) environment. The Windows PE environment is a minimally featured operating system that allows you to access diagnostic and maintenance tools as well as access network drives. To deploy an image from a network share, you use the Diskpart tool to format the hard drive of a destination computer. Then you copy the image from the network share and begin the installation by running Setup.exe.

QUESTION 43
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You have an application installation package named app1.msi. You need to perform a customized installation of app1.msi. What should you do?

A.    Create a transform file named app1.mst and then run Msiexec.exe /i app1.msi /t app1.mst.
B.    Create a transform file named app1.mst and then run Msinfo32.exe /i app1.msi /t.
C.    Create a transform file named app1.msp and then run Msiexec.exe /i app1.msi /t app1.mst.
D.    Create a transform file named app1.msp and then run Msinfo32.exe /i app1.msi /t.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Windows Installer Transform Files
A Windows Installer transform (.mst) file provides configuration settings for a customized installation. A transform file contains information about components, features, setup properties, and changes that you can use to customize your installation.
MsiexecProvides the means to install, modify, and perform operations on Windows Installer from the command line. To install or configure a product Syntax msiexec /i {package|ProductCode} /i: Installs or configures a product. /t : Applies transform to advertised package.NOT Msinfo32
Displays a comprehensive view of your hardware, system components, and software environment.

QUESTION 44
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You have a third party application.
You need to ensure that only a specific version of the application runs on the computer.
You have the application vendor’s digital signature. What should you do?

A.    From Application Control Policies, configure a path rule.
B.    From Application Control Policies, configure a publisher rule.
C.    From Software Restriction policies, configure a path rule.
D.    From Software Restriction policies, configure a certificate rule.

Answer: B

QUESTION 45
You have a computer that runs Windows 7 Professional. A removable drive is attached to the computer. You need to protect data on the removable drive by using Bitlocker To Go. What should you do first?

A.    Upgrade the computer to Windows 7 Enterprise.
B.    Install all Windows Updates for Windows 7 Professional.
C.    Issue a digital certificate for the Encryption File System (EFS).
D.    Select the Encrypt contents to secure data checkbox from the properties on the removable drive.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Windows 7 ProfessionalWindows 7 Professional is available from retailers and on new computers installed by manufacturers. It supports all the features available in Windows Home Premium, but you can join computers with this operating system installed to a domain. It supports EFS and Remote Desktop Host but does not support enterprise features such as AppLocker, DirectAccess, BitLocker, and BranchCache.Windows 7 Enterprise and Ultimate EditionsThe Windows 7 Enterprise and Ultimate editions are identical except for the fact that Windows 7 Enterprise is available only to Microsoft’s volume licensing customers, and Windows 7 Ultimate is available from retailers and on new computers installed by manufacturers. The Enterprise and Ultimate editions support all the features available in other Windows 7 editions but also support all the enterprise features such as EFS, Remote Desktop Host, AppLocker, DirectAccess, BitLocker, BranchCache, and Boot from VHD.

QUESTION 46
You attach a mobile device that runs Windows Mobile Professional 6.1 to a computer. You discover that windows is unable to install the necessary device drivers for the mobile device. You need to ensure that you can synchronize file to the mobile device. What should you do?

A.    From Windows Mobility Center, click Sync settings.
B.    From Sync Center, click set up new sync partnerships.
C.    From Device Manager, click scan for hardware changes.
D.    From Devices and Printers, right-click the device and click troubleshoot.

Answer: D
Explanation:
You cannot sync without the drivers installed. It says unable to install, assuming that it could find the device if it was able to reach attempting to install point. Therefore Troubleshoot.

QUESTION 47
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You view the properties of a file on the computer as show in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to ensure that you can configure permissions on the file. What should you do?
 clip_image001

A.    From Folder Options, modify the View settings.
B.    Move the file to a disk that has the NTFS file system.
C.    Open Windows Explorer by using elevated privileges.
D.    Hold the SHIFT key, right-click the file, and click Properties.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Missing options hints not on NTFS. On NTFS volumes, you can set security permissions on files and folders. These permissions grant or deny access to the files and folders. You can view security permissions for files and folders by completing the following steps:
1. In Windows Explorer, right-click the file or folder you want to work with.
2. From the pop-up menu, select Properties, and then in the Properties dialog box click the Security tab.
3. In the Name list box, select the user, contact, computer, or group whose permissions you want to view. If the permissions are dimmed, it means the permissions are inherited from a parent object.

QUESTION 48
You install an application named app1.exe on a computer. After the installation the computer becomes unresponsive.
You restart the computer and attempt to uninstall App1.exe. The uninstallation of App1.exe fails. You need to restore the computer to its previous functional state.
You must achieve the goal by using the minimum amount of administration.
What should you do?

A.    From Recovery, restore a system restore point.
B.    From the Previous Versions tab of App1.exe, click Restore button.
C.    Start the computer, press F8 and then use the Last Known Good Configuration.
D.    Create a system repair disc and then start the computer from the system repair disc.

Answer: A
Explanation:
If you install an application that causes your computer to become unstable, you should first attempt to uninstall the application. If this does not solve the problem, you can restore system files and settings by performing a system restore to restore the computer to its last system restore point. A system restore returns a computer system to a selected restore point. System restores do not alter user files. Note that a system restore is not the same as a System Image restore.
Windows 7 creates system restore points on a regular schedule and prior to events such as the installation of applications and drivers. A restore point contains information about registry settings and other system information. Windows 7 generates restore points automatically before implementing significant system changes. You can manually create restore points and restore a computer system to a selected restore point. If you install an application or driver that causes your computer to become unstable, you should first attempt to uninstall the application or roll back the driver. If this does not solve the problem, you can restore system files and settings by performing a system restore to restore the computer to its last system restore point. A system restore returns a computer system to a selected restore point. System restores do not alter user files. Note that a system restore is not the same as a System Image restore.

QUESTION 49
You have a portable computer named Computer1 and a desktop computer named Computer2. Both computers run Windows 7. On computer2, you create a share named Share1 by using Advanced Sharing feature. You need to ensure that when you connect to Share1 from Computer1, the files that you open are automatically cached. What should you do?

A.    On Computer1, modify the Offline Files settings.
B.    On Computer1, modify the User Profile settings.
C.    On Computer2, modify the properties of Share1.
D.    On Computer2, modify the file sharing connection settings for the HomeGroup.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The caching feature of Shared Folders ensures that users have access to shared files even when they are working offline without access to the network. You can also use Shared Folders or Share and Storage Management to enable BranchCache on shared resources. The BranchCache feature in Windows?7 or Windows Server 2008 R2 enables computers in a branch office to cache files downloaded from this shared folder, and then securely serve the files to other computers in the branch.
To set caching options for a shared folder by using the Windows interface
1. Open Computer Management.2. If the User Account Control dialog box appears, confirm that the action it displays is what you want, and then click Yes.3. In the console tree, click System Tools, click Shared Folders, and then click Shares.4. In the results pane, right-click the shared folder, and then click Properties.5. On the General tab, click Offline Settings, configure the offline availability options as appropriate and then click OK. Offline availability optionsSelect the following offline availability option for each shared folder:
All files and programs that users open from the share are automatically available offlineWhenever a user accesses the shared folder or volume and opens a file or program in it, that file or program will be automatically made available offline to that user. Files and programs that are automatically made available offline will remain in the Offline Files cache and synchronize with the version on the server until the cache is full or the user deletes the files. Files and programs that are not opened are not available offline.
 clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 50
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computers hard disks are configured as shown in the following table:
 clip_image001[8]
You need to ensure that you can recover the operating system and all the files on the computer if both hard disks fail.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create a system image.
B.    Create a system repair disc.
C.    Shrink C and then create a new partition.
D.    Connect an external hard disk to the computer.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A System Image is a copy of all the files and folders on the system disk (and other specified hard disks) on a computer. You can use a System Image backup to restore the computer to exactly what its configuration was when the System Image backup was created.
External hard drives can be removed and stored in a secure location.NOT System Repair Disc:A system repair disc can be used to boot your computer. It also contains Windows system recovery tools that can help you recover Windows from a serious error or restore your computer from a system image. It does not actually save the data and will only help if a system image exists elsewhere.NOT Shrink: All partitions are inaccessible is a hard disk fails.

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QUESTION 31
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 is a member of an Active Directory domain. Remote Desktop is enabled on the computer. You share a folder on Computer1. You need to configure Computer1 to meet the following requirements:
– Allow computers in the local subnet to access the shared folder.
– Prevent computers in remote subnets from accessing the shared folder.
– Allow all computers to connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop.
What should you do?

A.    Modify the subnet mask.
B.    Modify the Public folder sharing settings.
C.    Disable network discovery on all computers located in remote subnets.
D.    Modify the properties of the File and Printer Sharing firewall exceptions.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Network ProfilesNetwork profiles are important because you can use them to apply different collections of firewall rules based on which network profile is active. A significant difference between Windows Vista and Windows 7 is that in Windows 7, profiles apply on a per-network interface basis. This means that if you have one network adapter connected to the Internet and another connected to your office LAN, different sets of rules apply for each connection. The firewall in Windows Vista chooses the most restrictive network profile when a computer has connections to different network types and applies the most restrictive set of rules to all interfaces.Allowing Programs Through Windows FirewallWindows Firewall allows you to configure exceptions based on programs. This differs from Windows Vista where Windows Firewall would allow you to configure exceptions based on port address. You can still create rules based on port address; you just have to do it using WFAS, covered later in this lesson. You can also allow specific Windows 7 features, such as Windows Virtual PC, through Windows Firewall. Feature rules become available when you enable the feature using the Programs And Features item in Control Panel. To add a rule for a feature or program, click Allow A Program Or Feature Through Windows Firewall item in the Windows Firewall section of Control Panel. The figure shows a list of currently installed features and any programs for which rules have been created as well as the profiles for which rules concerning those programs and features are enabled.File and Printer Sharing
This feature is used for sharing local files and printers with other users on the network.
(Uses NetBIOS, LLMNR, SMB and RPC)
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 32
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You attempt to add files to %programfiles%\app1 and receive a prompt to elevate your privileges. You need to ensure that you can add files to %programfiles%\app1 without receiving a prompt for elevated privileges.
The solution must prevent harmful applications from making unwanted changes to the system. What should you do?

A.    Enable the built-in administrator account.
B.    Modify the User Account Control (UAC) settings.
C.    Add your user account to the local Power Users group.
D.    Modify the permissions of the %programfiles%\app1 folder.

Answer: D
Explanation:
In order to secure a computer and its resources, you must consider the rights that users will have. You can secure a computer or multiple computers by granting users or groups specific user rights. You can help secure an object, such as a file or folder, by assigning permissions to allow users or groups to perform specific actions on that object.

QUESTION 33
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You configure the computer to automatically install all updates.
You need to verify whether a specific update is installed. What should you do?

A.    In event viewer, examine the application log.
B.    In windows update, examine the update history.
C.    At the command prompt, run Wusa.exe and specify the /kb parameter.
D.    At the command prompt, run Verifier.exe and specify the /query parameter.

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You need to identify which hardware is required to create a system repair disc.
What hardware should you identify?

A.    CD/DVD burner
B.    Floppy disk
C.    Tape drive
D.    USB disk

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You manually create a system restore point.
You need to restore a copy of a file stored on a drive C from two days ago.
You must act with minimum administrative effort.
What should you do?

A.    From recovery, select System Restore.
B.    From Backup and restore, select Restore my files.
C.    From the command prompt, run Wbadmin get items.
D.    From the properties of the file, select Previous Versions.

Answer: D
Explanation:
How do I view or restore previous versions of a file and folder? Right-click the file or folder, and then click Restore previous versions. You’ll see a list of available previous versions of the file or folder. The list will include files saved on a backup (if you’re using Windows Backup to back up your files) as well as restore points. To restore a previous version of a file or folder that’s included in a library, right-click the file or folder in the location where it’s saved, rather than in the library. For example, to restore a previous version of a picture that’s included in the Pictures library but is stored in the My Pictures folder, right-click the My Pictures folder, and then click Restore previous versions. For more information about libraries, see Include folders in a library.
 clip_image001
The Previous Versions tab, showing some previous versions of files
NOT System Restore: System Restore restores system files and settings and does not affect any of your documents, pictures, or other personal data.
NOT Backup and Restore: System restore point was created, no backup meantioned.NOT Wbadmin:
The Backup And Restore console does not provide a graphical tool for scheduling System Image backups. You need to create a System Image backup manually from the Backup
And Restore console whenever you have made significant changes to a computer’s configuration. Take care that if you restore a System Image backup and boot from it, or if you make the VHD bootable for failover protection, your computer could be vulnerable unless the System Image includes security updates. Although you cannot use Backup And Restore to schedule System Image backups, you can use the Wbadmin command-line utility to perform this function. For example, to initiate a System Image backup of the C: drive to the H: drive, you run the following command from an elevated command prompt:
wbadmin start backup -backuptarget:h: -include:c: -quiet

QUESTION 36
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista. The computer has one partition and 1 GB of RAM. You need to upgrade the computer to Windows 7. What should you do?

A.    Add 1 GB of RAM.
B.    Create a second partition.
C.    Disable User Account Control (UAC).
D.    Install Windows Vista Service pack 2 (SP2).

Answer: D
Explanation:
You should keep the following in mind prior to and during the upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7:
– Perform a full backup of the computer running Windows Vista prior to performing the installation. – That way, if things go wrong, you can do a full restore back to Windows Vista. You must ensure that Windows Vista has Service Pack 1 or later installed before you can upgrade it to Windows 7. – Ensure that you have the Windows 7 product key prior to the upgrade. – You cannot upgrade between processor architectures. An x86 version of Windows Vista cannot be upgraded to an x64 version of Windows 7, and vice versa. – You can upgrade only to an equivalent or higher edition of Windows 7. – You can upgrade Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, or Ultimate, but not to Windows 7 Starter. Windows 7 Professional is equivalent to Windows Vista Business. – Ensure that there is at least 10 GB of free disk space on the Windows Vista volume prior to attempting the upgrade.Requirements:Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions have the following minimum hardware requirements:
– 1 GHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) processor
– 1 GB of system memory- A 40-GB hard disk drive (traditional or SSD) with at least 15 GB of available space
– A graphics adapter that supports DirectX 9 graphics, has a Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) driver, Pixel Shader 2.0 hardware, and 32 bits per pixel and a minimum of 128 MB graphics memory

QUESTION 37
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer is configured as shown in the following table:
 clip_image001[6]
You plan to install a new application that requires 40 GB of space. The application will be installed to C:\app1.
You need to provide 40 GB of free space for the application. What should you do?

A.    Create a shortcut.
B.    Create hard link.
C.    Create a mount point.
D.    Change the quota settings.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Assign a mount point folder path to a driveYou can use Disk Management to assign a mount-point folder path (rather than a drive letter) to the drive. Mount-point folder paths are available only on empty folders on basic or dynamic NTFS volumes.Volume Mount PointsVolume mount points are new system objects in the internal namespace of Windows 2000 that represent storage volumes in a persistent, robust manner. This feature allows multiple disk volumes to be linked into a single tree, similar to the way Dfs links remote network shares. You can have many disk volumes linked together, with only a single drive letter pointing to the root volume. The combination of an NTFS junction and a Windows 2000 volume mount point can be used to graft multiple volumes into the namespace of a host NTFS volume. Windows 2000 offers this new mounting feature as an alternative to drive letters so system administrators can transcend the 26-drive letter limit that exists in Windows NT. Volume mount points are robust against system changes that occur when devices are added or removed from a computer. Important-icon Important A volume is a self-contained unit of storage administered by a file system. The file system that administers the storage in a volume defines a namespace for the volume. A volume mount point is a directory name in an NTFS file system that denotes the root of an arbitrary volume. A volume mount point can be placed in any empty directory of the namespace of the containing NTFS volume. Because volumes can be denoted by arbitrary directory names, they are not required to have a traditional drive letter. Placing a volume mount point on an NTFS directory causes the storage subsystem to resolve the directory to a specified local volume. This “mounting” is done transparently and does not require a drive letter to represent the volume. A Windows 2000 mount point always resolves to the root directory of the desired volume. Volume mount points require that the version of NTFS included with Windows 2000 be used because they are based on NTFS reparse points.

QUESTION 38
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You log on to the computer by using a user account that is a member of Administrator Group. From Windows Explorer you open C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts in notepad. You attempt to save the file and receive the save as dialog box.
You need to ensure that you can save changes to c:\windows\system32\drivers\.
What should you do?

A.    Stop the windows search service.
B.    Remove the inherited permissions from the file.
C.    Start Windows Notepad by using elevated privileges.
D.    Change the user account control (UAS) settings to Notify Me Only when programs try to make changes
to my computer.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows 7 does not allow applications to write data to these secure locations. User Account Control (UAC)UAC is a security feature of Windows 7 that informs you when the action that you want to undertake requires an elevation of privileges. If you logged on with a user account that was a member of the local administrators group in previous versions of Microsoft Windows, such as Windows XP, you automatically had administrator- level access at all times. This, by itself, was not a problem because recommended good practice was that people logged on with accounts that were members of the local administrator group only when they needed to do something related to administration. The problem with this is that people tended to use their administrator account as their normal user account. It was convenient for them because they did not have to log off and log on again each time they wanted to do something related to systems administration. Unfortunately, this behavior presented a security problem because any program run by a user logged on with an administrative account runs with the rights and privileges of that user. UAC resolves this problem by allowing a user that is a member of the local Administrators group to run as a standard user most of the time and to briefly elevate their privileges so that they are running as administrators when they attempt to carry out specific administration-related tasks.Privilege elevationAll users of clients running Windows 7 run with the rights of a standard user. When a user attempts an act that requires administrative privileges, such as creating a new user account, her rights need to be raised from those of a standard user to those of an administrative user. This increase in rights is termed privilege elevation. UAC is a gateway to privilege elevation. It allows users who are members of the local Administrators group to access administrative rights, but ensures that the person accessing the Administrative rights is aware that they are doing so. This privilege elevation occurs only for a specific task. Another task executed at the same time that also requires privilege elevation generates its own UAC

QUESTION 39
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
The network contains a monitoring server named server1. The computer runs a monitoring service named Service1. Service1 uses Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs).
You need to ensure that Service1 can receive requests from Server1.
What should you do?

A.    From windows Firewall with Advanced Security, create a predefined rule.
B.    From windows Firewall with Advanced Security, create a custom rule.
C.    From the Network and Sharing Center, modify the network location settings.
D.    From the Network and Sharing Center, modify the advanced sharing settings.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating WFAS Rules
The process for configuring inbound rules and outbound rules is essentially the same: In the WFAS console, select the node that represents the type of rule that you want to create and then click New Rule. This opens the New Inbound (or Outbound) Rule Wizard. The first page, allows you to specify the type of rule that you are going to create. You can select between a program, port, predefined, or custom rule. The program and predefined rules are similar to what you can create using Windows Firewall. A custom rule allows you to configure a rule based on criteria not covered by any of the other options. You would create a custom rule if you wanted a rule that applied to a particular service rather than a program or port. You can also use a custom rule if you want to create a rule that involves both a specific program and a set of ports. For example, if you wanted to allow communication to a specific program on a certain port but not other ports, you would create a custom rule.

QUESTION 40
You have a customized image of Windows 7 Professional. You mount the image and modify the contents of the image. You need to restore the image to its original state. Which tool should you use?

A.    Dism.exe
B.    Ocsetup.exe
C.    Pkgmgr.exe
D.    Sysprep.exe

Answer: A
Explanation:
Dism
Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating system.
Windows 7 introduces the DISM command-line tool. You can use DISM to service a Windows image or to prepare a Windows PE image. DISM replaces Package Manager (Pkgmgr.exe), PEimg, and Intlcfg in Windows Vista, and includes new features to improve the experience for offline servicing.
You can use DISM to perform the following actions:
* Prepare a Windows PE image.
* Enable or disable Windows features within an image.
* Upgrade a Windows image to a different edition.
* Add, remove, and enumerate packages.
* Add, remove, and enumerate drivers.
* Apply changes based on the offline servicing section of an unattended answer file.
* Configure international settings.
* Implement powerful logging features.
* Service operating systems such as Windows Vista with SP1 and Windows Server 2008.
* Service a 32-bit image from a 64-bit host and service a 64-bit image from a 32-bit host.
* Service all platforms (32-bit, 64-bit, and Itanium).
* Use existing Package Manager scripts.
DISM Command-Line Options
To service a Windows image offline, you must apply or mount it. WIM images can be mounted using the WIM commands within DISM, or applied and then recaptured using ImageX. You can also use the WIM commands to list the indexes or verify the architecture for the image you are mounting. After you update the image, you must dismount it and then either commit or discard the changes you have made.
NOT Sysprep
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning.
Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and omputerspecific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

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QUESTION 21
You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows 7. Both computers are members of an Active Directory domain. Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is
enabled on both computers.
You need to remotely create additional disk volumes on Computer1 from Computer2. What should you do?

A.    On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskpart.
B.    On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskmgmt.msc.
C.    On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then run Diskpart from Computer2.
D.    On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then use Disk Management from Computer2.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Winrs You can use WinRS to execute command-line utilities or scripts on a remote computer. To use WinRS, open a command prompt and prefix the command that you want to run on the remote computer with the WinRS -r: RemoteComputerName command. For example, to execute the Ipconfig command on a computer named Aberdeen, issue the command: WinRS -r:Aberdeen ipconfig The Windows Remote Management service allows you to execute commands on a remote computer, either from the command prompt using WinRS or from Windows PowerShell. Before you can use WinRS or Windows PowerShell for remote management tasks, it is necessary to configure the target computer using the WinRM command. To configure the target computer, you must run the command WinRM quickconfig from an elevated command prompt.
Diskpart: Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.

QUESTION 22
A remote user has a computer that runs Windows 7. The user reports that he receives several error messages while using an application.
You do not have remote access to the user’s computer. You need to tell the user how to create
screenshots of the actions he performs on the computer. The solution must track the mouse actions that the user performs. What should you instruct the user to do?

A.    Press ALT + PrintScreen.
B.    Run Psr.exe and then click Start Record.
C.    From Mouse Properties, select Display pointer trails.
D.    Run Snippingtool.exe, click New, and then click Window Snip.

Answer: B
Explanation:
How do I use Problem Steps Recorder?You can use Problem Steps Recorder to automatically capture the steps you take on a computer, including a text description of where you clicked and a picture of the screen during each click (called a screen shot). Once you capture these steps, you can save them to a file that can be used by a support professional or someone else helping you with a computer problem.NotesWhen you record steps on your computer, anything you type will not be recorded. If what you type is an important part of recreating the problem you’re trying to solve, use the comment feature described below to highlight where the problem is occurring.

QUESTION 23
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer’s disk is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002
You need to extend volume C.
What should you do first?

A.    Back up and delete volume D.
B.    Convert disk 0 to a dynamic disk.
C.    Remove the crash dump from volume C.
D.    Move the paging file from volume C to volume E.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Extend a Basic Volume
You can add more space to existing primary partitions and logical drives by extending them into adjacent unallocated space on the same disk. To extend a basic volume, it must be raw or formatted with the NTFS file system. You can extend a logical drive within contiguous free space in the extended partition that contains it. If you extend a logical drive beyond the free space available in the extended partition, the extended partition grows to contain the logical drive. For logical drives, boot, or system volumes, you can extend the volume only into contiguous space and only if the disk can be upgraded to a dynamic disk. For other volumes, you can extend the volume into noncontiguous space, but you will be prompted to convert the disk to dynamic.

QUESTION 24
You need to increase the size of a paging file. What should you do?

A.    From Disk Management, shrink the boot partition.
B.    From Disk Management, shrink the system partition.
C.    From System, modify the Advanced system settings.
D.    From System, modify the System protection settings.

Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Click Start, right-click My Computer, and then click Properties.
2. In the System Properties dialog box, click the Advanced tab.
3. In the Performance pane, click Settings.
4. In the Performance Options dialog box, click the Advanced tab.
5. In the Virtual memory pane, click Change.
6. Change the Initial size value and the Maximum size value to a higher value, click Set, and then click OK.
7. Click OK to close the Performance Options dialog box, and then click OK to close the System Properties dialog box.

QUESTION 25
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista (x86). You need to perform a clean installation of Windows 7 (64-bit). What should you do?

A.    From the Windows 7 installation media, run Rollback.exe.
B.    From the Windows 7 installation media, run Migsetup.exe.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media. From the Install Windows dialog box,
select the Upgrade option.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media. From the Install Windows dialog box,
select the Custom (advanced) option.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you are performing a clean installation, you should select Custom (Advanced). Almost all installations ofm Windows 7 that you will perform will be of the Custom (Advanced) type rather than upgrades. You can initiate upgrade installations only from within Windows Vista or Windows 7.NOT Rollback, Migsetup, or Upgrade:Specified clean installation not migration, update or rollback.

QUESTION 26
Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest.
You have 50 portable computers and 50 desktop computers. All computers have 32-bit hardware. You plan to deploy Windows 7 and 10 corporate applications to the computers by using a custom image.
You need to prepare for the deployment by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?

A.    On one computer, install Windows 7 and the corporate applications.
B.    On one portable computer and one desktop computer, install Windows 7 and the corporate applications.
C.    On a server, install and run the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit.
D.    On a server, install the Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK) and run Windows System Image Manager
(Windows SIM).

Answer: A
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown.
Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computerspecific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 27
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to copy files to a virtual hard disk (VHD) file. What should you do first?

A.    Run Dism.exe and specify the /image and /online parameters.
B.    Open Windows Explorer, right-click the VHD file and select Open.
C.    Run Diskpart.exe and then run the select and attach commands.
D.    Run Imagex.exe and specify the /mountrw and /append parameters.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Diskpart Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.SelectShift the focus to an object.AttachAttaches a virtual disk file.

QUESTION 28
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You create an application shim for a third-party application by using the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT). You need to ensure that the application shim is applied the next time you run the application. What should you do first?

A.    Run Sdbinst.exe.
B.    Run Msiexec.exe.
C.    Right-click the application executable file and modify the compatibility settings.
D.    Right-click the application executable file and modify the advanced security settings.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users log on to the computer. The computer has five removable devices. You need to ensure that users can only access removable devices that have been previously installed on the computer.
What should you modify in the Local Group Policy?

A.    Enable the Prevent redirection of USB devices setting.
B.    Enable the Prevent installation of removable devices setting.
C.    Disable the WPD Devices: Deny read access setting.
D.    Disable the Allow administrators to override Device Installation Restriction policies setting.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Prevent installation of removable devices
This policy setting allows you to prevent Windows from installing removable devices. A device is considered removable when the driver for the device to which it is connected indicates that the device is removable. For example, a Universal Serial Bus (USB) device is reported to be removable by the drivers for the USB hub to which the device is connected. This policy setting takes precedence over any other policy setting that allows Windows to install a device. If you enable this policy setting, Windows is prevented from installing removable devices and existing removable devices cannot have their drivers updated. If you enable this policy setting on a remote desktop server, the policy setting affects redirection of removable devices from a remote desktop client to the remote desktop server. If you disable or do not configure this policy setting, Windows can install and update device drivers for removable devices as allowed or prevented by other policy settings. NOT Prevent redirection of USB devicesThis policy setting prevents redirection of USB devices. If you enable this setting, an alternate driver for USB devices cannot be loaded. If you disable or do not configure this setting, an alternate driver for USB devices can be loaded.

QUESTION 30
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs a custom network application.
Server1 has the following IP addresses:
– 192.168.15.10
– 192.168.15.11
You need to ensure that a client computer resolves server1.contoso.com to only the 192.168.15.11 IP address. What should you do from the computer?

A.    Edit the hosts file.
B.    Edit the lmhosts file.
C.    Run Ipconfig.exe /flushdns.
D.    Run Netsh interface ipv4 reset.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Differences Between the HOSTS and LMHOSTS Files in Windows NT In Windows NT, the HOSTS file is for TCP/IP utilities, and the LMHOSTS file is for LAN Manager NET utilities. If you cannot PING another computer (using a friendly name), check the HOSTS file. If you cannot NET VIEW a server using only the TCP/IP protocol, check the LMHOSTS file.
Hosts fileThe Hosts file is a common way to resolve a host name to an IP address through a locally stored text file that contains IP-address-to-host-name mappings. On most UNIX- based computers, this file is /etc/hosts. On Windows-based computers, this file is the Hosts file in the systemroot\System32\Drivers\Etc folder. The following describes the attributes of the Hosts file for Windows: A single entry consists of an IP (IPv4 or IPv6) address and one or more host names. The Hosts file is dynamically loaded into the DNS client resolver cache, which Windows Sockets applications use to resolve a host name to an IP address on both local and remote subnets. When you create entries in the Hosts file and save it, its contents are automatically loaded into the DNS client resolver cache. The Hosts file contains a default entry for the host name localhost. The Hosts file can be edited with any text editor. Each host name is limited to 255 characters. Entries in the Hosts file for Windows-based computers are not case sensitive. The advantage of using a Hosts file is that users can customize it for themselves. Each user can create whatever entries they want, including easy-to-remember nicknames for frequently accessed resources. However, the individual maintenance required for the Hosts file does not scale well to storing large numbers of FQDN mappings or reflecting changes to IP addresses for servers and network resources. The solution for the large-scale storage and maintenance of FQDN mappings is DNS. The solution for the maintenance of FQDN mappings for changing IP addresses is DNS dynamic update.NOT LMHOSTS FileThe LMHOSTS file is a local text file that maps IP addresses to NetBIOS names of remote servers with which you want to communicate over the TCP/IP protocol. Windows recognizes names instead of IP addresses for network requests and a name discovery process is used to correctly route network requests with TCP/IP. Because the name discovery process is generally not routed by an IP router, the LMHOSTS file allows Windows machines to communicate using TCP/IP across a subnet.
– LMHOSTS contains IP address to “NetBIOS over TCP/IP” name translations.
– LMHOSTS is only used by the NBT (NetBIOS over TCP/IP) interface.
– LMHOSTS file contains some valuable additions to the LAN Manager and Windows for Workgroups
– LMHOSTS file, such as the ability to support routed domain logon validation.
– LMHOSTS contains static information about TCP/IP addresses, but using logon scripts and/or the replicator service, the “master” file can be distributed transparently across all stations.
– By default, the LMHOSTS file should be located in the directory %SYSTEMROOT%\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS \ETC (usually
C:\WINNT\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\ETC).
Other info
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/105997

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QUESTION 11
You have a portable computer that runs Windows 7. You configure the computer to enter sleep mode after 10 minutes of inactivity. You do not use the computer for 15 minutes and discover that the computer has not entered sleep mode. You need to identify what is preventing the computer from entering sleep mode. What should you do?

A.    At a command prompt, run Powercfg energy.
B.    At a command prompt, run Systeminfo /s localhost.
C.    From Performance Monitor, review the System Summary.
D.    From Performance Information and Tools, review the detailed performance and system information.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Command-line Power Configuration
Powercfg.exe is a command-line utility that you can use from an administrative command prompt to manage Windows 7 power settings. It is possible to use Powercfg.exe to configure a number of Windows 7 powerrelated settings that you cannot configure through Group Policy or the Advanced Plan Settings dialog box. You can use Powercfg.exe to configure specific devices so that they are able to wake the computer from the Sleep state. You can also use Powercfg.exe to migrate power policies from one computer running Windows 7 to another by using the import and export functionality.
-energy
Check the computer for common energy-efficiency and battery life problems. Provides report in Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) format.For more information on Powercfg.exe, consult the following Microsoft TechNet document:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc748940.aspx.

QUESTION 12
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Your network contains a VPN server that runs Windows Server 2008. You need to authenticate to the VPN server by using a smart card. Which authentication setting should you choose?

A.    CHAP
B.    EAP
C.    MS-CHAP v2
D.    PAP

Answer: B
Explanation:
VPN Server Software Requirements
VPN server software requirements for smart card access are relatively straightforward. The remote access servers must run Windows 2000 Server or later, have Routing and Remote Access enabled, and must support Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS). EAP-TLS is a mutual authentication mechanism developed for use in conjunction with security devices, such as smart cards and hardware tokens. EAP-TLS supports Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and VPN connections, and enables exchange of shared secret keys for MPPE, in addition to Ipsec. The main benefits of EAP-TLS are its resistance to brute-force attacks and its support for mutual authentication. With mutual authentication, both client and server must prove their identities to each other. If either client or server does not send a certificate to validate its identity, the connection terminates.Microsoft Windows ServerTM 2003 supports EAP-TLS for dial-up and VPN connections, which enables the use of smart cards for remote users. For more information about EAP-TLS, see the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) topic at www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/en-us/auth_eap.
mspx.
For more information about EAP certificate requirements, see the Microsoft Knowledge Base article “Certificate Requirements when you use EAP-TLS or PEAP with EAP-TLS” at http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx? scid=814394.

QUESTION 13
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7.
The computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. The network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. You log on to the computer by using an account named User1. You need to ensure that when you connect to Server1, you authenticate by using an account named Admin1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    From User Accounts, select Link online IDs.
B.    From Windows CardSpace, select Add a card.
C.    From Credential Manager, select Add a Windows credential.
D.    From Local Security Policy, modify the Access this computer from the network user right.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Credential Manager
Credential Manager stores logon user name and passwords for network resources, including file servers, Web sites, and terminal services servers. Credential Manager stores user name and password data in the Windows Vault. You can back up the Windows Vault and restore it on other computers running Windows 7 as a method of transferring saved credentials from one computer to another. Although Credential Manager can be used to back up some forms of digital certificates, it cannot be used to back up and restore the self- signed Encrypting File System (EFS) certificates that Windows 7 generates automatically when you encrypt a file. For this reason, you must back up EFS certificates using other tools. You will learn about backing up EFS certificates later in this lesson.
 clip_image002[1]

QUESTION 14
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create a HomeGroup. You need to secure the HomeGroup to meet the following requirements:
– Allow access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to private networks.
– Block access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to public networks.
What should you do?

A.    From Network and Sharing Center, modify the advanced sharing settings.
B.    From the HomeGroup settings in Control Panel, modify the advanced sharing settings.
C.    Configure the HomeGroup exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private) networks
and block Public networks.
D.    Configure the File and Printer Sharing exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private)
networks and block Public networks.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows Firewall does not allow you to create firewall rules for specific network locations on the basis of port address. Windows Firewall does not allow you to create rules that differentiate between the home and work network locations. You can only create rules that differentiate on the basis of home and work or public network locations.
HomeGroup Connections
This option decides how authentication works for connections to HomeGroup resources. If all computers in the HomeGroup have the same user name and passwords configured, you can set this option to allow Windows to manage HomeGroup connections. If different user accounts and passwords are present, you should configure the option to use user accounts and passwords to connect to other computers. This option is available only in the Home/Work network profile.

QUESTION 15
A user named User1 uses a shared computer that runs Windows 7. User1 is a member of group named Group1. The computer contains a folder named Folder1.
You need to configure the permissions on Folder1 to meet the following requirements:
– User1 must be allowed to delete all files in Folder1.
– Members of Group1 must be able to create files in Folder1.
– All other members of Group1 must be prevented from deleting files they did not create in Folder1.
– All users must be prevented from modifying the permissions on Folder1.
What should you do?

A.    Assign Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
B.    Assign Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.
C.    Deny Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
D.    Deny Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.

Answer: A
Explanation:
File and Folder Permissions
ReadFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits viewing or accessing of the file’s contentsWriteFolders: Permits adding of files and subfoldersFiles:
Permits writing to a fileRead & ExecuteFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by files and folders Files: Permits viewing and accessing of the file’s contents as well as executing of the fileList Folder ContentsFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by folders onlyFiles: N/AModifyFolders: Permits reading and writing of files and subfolders; allows deletion of the folderFiles: Permits reading and writing of the file; allows deletion of the fileFull ControlFolders: Permits reading, writing, changing, and deleting of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits reading, writing, changing and deleting of the file

QUESTION 16
Your company has an internal Web site that requires HTTPS. The Web site’s certificate is self-signed. You have a computer that runs Windows 7 and Windows Internet Explorer 8. You use HTTPS to browse to the Web site and receive the following warning message. There is a problem with this website’s security certificate. You need to prevent the warning message from appearing when you access the Web site. What should you do?

A.    From Internet Explorer, enable InPrivate Browsing.
B.    From Internet Explorer, add the Web site to the Trusted sites zone.
C.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Personal store.
D.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Trusted Root Certification
Authorities store.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Certificate Manager
A certificate manager can approve certificate enrollment and revocation requests, issue certificates, and manage certificates. This role can be configured by assigning a user or group the Issue and Manage Certificatespermission. When you assign this permission to a user or group, you can further refine their ability to manage certificates by group and by certificate template. For example, you might want to implement a restriction that they can only approve requests or revoke smart card logon certificates for users in a certain office or organizational unit that is the basis for a security group.Importing CertificatesYou may restore certificates and the corresponding private keys from a file.
6. Right-click the certificate store you want to import, and click Install PFX on the context menu.
7. The Certificate Import Wizard launches. Click Next.
8. In the File name text box, type the name of the certificate file that you want to import. Alternatively, you can find the file by clicking Browse.
9. Click Next. If the file specified is a Personal Information Exchange-KCS #12 (*.pfx), you will be prompted for the password. Enter the password to import the file. Click Next.
10. On the next page, select where you’d like to store the certificate. Click Next.
11. The next wizard page contains summary information about the file that you are importing. Click Finish to import the file. The certificate(s) are now ready for use by the system.

QUESTION 17
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All client computers are configured to use BranchCache. At the branch office, a computer named Computer1 is  experiencing performance issues. You need to temporarily prevent all computers from retrieving cached content from Computer1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache flush.
B.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache dump.
C.    Modify the Configure BranchCache for network files Group Policy setting.
D.    Modify the Set percentage of disk space used for client computer cache Group Policy setting.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Flush
Deletes the contents of the local BranchCache cache.

QUESTION 18
You have a standalone computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users share the computer. You need to ensure that you can read the content of all encrypted files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -importpfx.
B.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -installcert.
C.    Run Cipher.exe /r and then add a data recovery agent from the local security policy.
D.    Run Cipher.exe /rekey and then import a security template from the local security policy.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cipher
Displays or alters the encryption of folders and files on NTFS volumes. Used without parameters, cipher displays the encryption state of the current folder and any files it contains. Administrators can use Cipher.exe to encrypt and decrypt data on drives that use the NTFS file system and to view the encryption status of files and folders from a command prompt. The updated version adds another security option. This new option is the ability to overwrite data that you have deleted so that it cannot be recovered and accessed.When you delete files or folders, the data is not initially removed from the hard disk. Instead, the space on the disk that was occupied by the deleted data is “deallocated.” After it is deallocated, the space is available for use when new data is written to the disk. Until the space is overwritten, it is possible to recover the deleted data by using a low-level disk editor or data-recovery software.
If you create files in plain text and then encrypt them, Encrypting File System (EFS) makes a backup copy of the file so that, if an error occurs during the encryption process, the data is not lost. After the encryption is complete, the backup copy is deleted. As with other deleted files, the data is not completely removed until it has been overwritten. The new version of the Cipher utility is designed to prevent unauthorized recovery of such data.
/K Creates a new certificate and key for use with EFS. If this option is chosen, all the other options will be ignored. By default, /k creates a certificate and key that conform to current group plicy. If ECC is specified, a self-signed certificate will be created with the supplied key size. /R Generates an EFS recovery key and certificate, then writes them to a .PFX file (containing certificate and private key) and a .CER file (containing only the certificate). An administrator may add the contents of the .CER to the EFS recovery policy to create the recovery for users, and import the .PFX to recover individual files. If SMARTCARD is specified, then writes the recovery key and certificate to a smart card. A .CER file is generated (containing only the certificate). No .PFX file is genereated. By default, /R creates an 2048-bit RSA recovery key and certificate. If EECC is specified, it must be followed by a key size of 356, 384, or 521.

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are members of the domain. All servers are located in the main office. You have a portable computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 is joined to the domain and is located in a branch office.A file server named Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1.
You need to configure Computer1 to meet the following requirements:
– Minimize network traffic between the main office and the branch office.
– Ensure that Computer1 can only access resources in Share1 while it is connected to the network.
What should you do?

A.    On Computer1, enable offline files.
B.    On Computer1, enable transparent caching.
C.    On Server1, configure DirectAccess.
D.    On Server1, configure Share1 to be available offline.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Transparent Caching
When you enable transparent caching, Windows 7 keeps a cached copy of all files that a user opens from shared folders on the local volume. The first time a user opens the file, the file is stored in the local cache. When the user opens the file again, Windows 7 checks the file to ensure that the cached copy is up to date and if it is, opens that instead. If the copy is not up to date, the client opens the copy hosted on the shared folder, also placing it in the local cache. Using a locally cached copy speeds up access to files stored on file servers on remote networks from the client. When a user changes a file, the client writes the changes to the copy of the file stored on the shared folder. When the shared folder is unavailable, the transparently cached copy is also unavailable. Transparent caching does not attempt to keep the local copy synced with the copy of the file on the remote file server as the Offline Files feature does. Transparent caching works on all files in a shared folder, not just those that you have configured to be available offline.

QUESTION 20
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
Your network contains a DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. The server is configured as a Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement point.
You need to configure the computer as a NAP client.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From Services, set the Netlogon service Startup Type to Automatic.
B.    From Services, set the Network Access Protection Agent service Startup Type to Automatic.
C.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, configure the user interface settings.
D.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, enable the DHCP Quarantine Enforcement Client.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Network Access Protection
Network Access Protection (NAP) is a feature in Windows Server 2008 that controls access to network resources based on a client computer’s identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. NAP allows network administrators to define granular levels of network access based on who a client is, the groups to which the client belongs, and the degree to which that client is compliant with corporate governance policy. If a client is not compliant, NAP provides a mechanism to automatically bring the client back into compliance and then dynamically increase its level of network access.NAP Client ConfigurationNetwork Access Protection (NAP), a new feature in Windows Vista?and Windows Server?2008, allows you to control the access of client computers to network resources based on computer identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. To implement NAP, you must configure NAP settings on both servers and client computers. There are three tools that you can use to configure NAP client settings: The NAP Client Configuration console provides a graphical user interface with which you can configure NAP client settings on the local computer or in a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. The Netsh commands for NAP client provide a command-line tool that you can use to configure client computers or to create a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. If you want to manage NAP client settings on domain member client computers, you can use the Group Policy Management Console and the Group Policy Management Editor. When you configure NAP client settings in Group Policy, these settings are applied on NAP-capable domain member client computers when Group Policy is refreshed.To enable and disable the DHCP enforcement client by using the Windows interface
1. To open the NAP Client Configuration console, click Start, click All Programs, click Accessories, click Run, type NAPCLCFG.MSC, and then click OK.
2. Click Enforcement Clients.
3. Right-click DHCP Enforcement Client, and then click Enable or Disable.Network Access
Protection Agent
The Network Access Protection (NAP) agent service collects and manages health information for client computers on a network. Information collected by NAP agent is used to make sure that the client computer has the required software and settings. If a client computer is not compliant with health policy, it can be provided with restricted network access until its configuration is updated. Depending on the configuration of health policy, client computers might be automatically updated so that users quickly regain full network access without having to manually update their computer.

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QUESTION 1
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer has System Protection enabled. You need to retain only the last System Protection snapshot of the computer. All other snapshots must be deleted. What should you do?

A.    Run Disk Cleanup for Programs and features.
B.    Run Disk Cleanup for System Restore and Shadow Copies.
C.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Turn off System Restore.
D.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Only restore previous versions of files.

Answer: B
Explanation:
 clip_image001
Shadow info:
Shadow copies are automatically saved as part of a restore point. If system protection is enabled, Windows 7 automatically creates shadow copies of files that have been modified since the last restore point was created. By default, new restore points are created every seven days or whenever a significant system change (such as a driver or application installation) occurs.

QUESTION 2
You have a reference computer that runs Windows 7. You plan to deploy an image of the computer. You create an answer file named answer.xml. You need to ensure that the installation applies the answer file after you deploy the image. Which command should you run before you capture the image?

A.    Imagex.exe /append answer.xml /check.
B.    Imagex.exe /mount answer.xml /verify.
C.    Sysprep.exe /reboot /audit /unattend:answer.xml.
D.    Sysprep.exe /generalize /oobe /unattend:answer.xml.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 3
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need to upgrade the computer to Windows 7. What should you do?

A.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
B.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom (advanced) option.
C.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
D.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom option.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Upgrading Windows Vista to Windows 7 instructionsAccess the Windows 7 installation source and double-click Setup.exe. When prompted by User Account Control, click Allow. This loads the Install Windows page. Click Install Now.Other NotesYou can upgrade computers running Windows Vista to Windows 7. When you upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, all documents, settings, applications, and user accounts that existed on the computer running Windows Vista are available when the upgrade is finished. The advantage to an upgrade is that it allows you to keep the current application configuration. When you perform a migration, you need to reinstall the user’s applications on the new computer. As mentioned previously, this can be problematic in organizations that are not careful about keeping track of which specific set of applications are installed on each user’s computer. Prior to attempting to perform the upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, you should run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor. The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is an application that you can download from Microsoft’s Web site that will inform you if Windows 7 supports a computer running the current hardware and software configuration of Windows Vista. Prior to running the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor, you should ensure that all hardware that you want to use with Windows 7, such as printers, scanners, and cameras, are connected to the computer. The Upgrade Advisor generates a report that informs you of which applications and devices are known to have problems with Windows
7. A similar compatibility report is generated during the upgrade process, but the version created by the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is more likely to be up to date.

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy Windows 7 to 100 computers on your corporate network.
You install Windows 7 on a computer. You and need to prepare the computer to be imaged. What should you do before you create the image of the computer?

A.    At the command prompt, run the Dism command.
B.    At the command prompt, run the Sysprep command.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the ImageX
command.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the Wpeutil
command.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Sysprep
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows?XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning. Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.NOT ImagexImageX is a command- line tool that enables original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) and corporations to capture, to modify, and to apply file-based disk images for rapid deployment. ImageX works with Windows image (.wim) files for copying to a network, or it can work with other technologies that use .wim images, such as Windows Setup, Windows Deployment Services (Windows DS), and the System Management Server (SMS) Operating System Feature Deployment Pack.NOT DismDeployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows?images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating systemNOT WpeutilThe Windows PE utility (Wpeutil) is a command-line tool that enables you to run various commands in a Windows PE session. For example, you can shut down or restart Windows PE, enable or disable a firewall, set language settings, and initialize a network.

QUESTION 5
You have a new computer that does not have an operating system installed.
You have a virtual hard disk (VHD) that contains an installation of Windows 7.
You start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You create a partition on the computer and copy the VHD to the partition.
You need to configure the computer to start from the VHD. Which tools should you use?

A.    Diskpart.exe and Bcdboot.exe
B.    Imagex.exe and Bcdedit.exe
C.    Scanstate.exe and Loadstate.exe
D.    Wpeutil.exe and Dism.exe

Answer: A
Explanation:
Diskpart
Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.Bcdboot You now want to apply this customized image to the hard disks of two new computers you have purchased without operating systems. You boot each computer in turn from the Windows PE media and use ImageX to install the image. Your final step, to make the image bootable, is to use BCDboot from Windows PE to initialize the BCD store and copy boot environment files to the system partition. When you reboot each new computer, it will boot into Windows 7 and will have the same settings configured and applications installed as your original computer. Take care you are not violating any licensing conditions.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains 100 computers that run Windows XP. You need to identify which applications installed on all of the computers can run on Windows 7. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you install?

A.    Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)
B.    Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
C.    Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
D.    Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK)

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 5.6 enables software developers, independent software vendors (ISVs), and IT professionals who work in a corporate environment to determine, before deployment within the organization, whether their applications are compatible with a new version of the Windows?operating system. ACT also enables such individuals to determine how an update to the new version will affect their applications.
You can use the ACT features to:
– Verify your application’s, device’s, and computer’s compatibility with a new version of the Windows operating system, including determining your risk assessment.
– Verify a Windows update’s compatibility, including determining your risk assessment.
– Become involved in the ACT Community, including sharing your application assessment with other ACT users.
– Test your applications for issues related to User Account Control (UAC) by using the Standard User Analyzer (SUA) tool.
– Test your Web applications and Web sites for compatibility with new releases and security updates to Internet Explorer? by using the Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool.

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of a single IPv4 subnet. The subnet contains 20 computers that run Windows 7. You add a new computer named Computer1 to the subnet. You discover that Computer1 has an IP address of 169.254.34.12. You cannot connect to other computers on the network. Other computers on the network can connect to each other. You need to ensure that you can connect to all computers on the network. What should you do?

A.    Turn off Windows Firewall.
B.    Run Ipconfig.exe /renew.
C.    Configure a static TCP/IP address.
D.    Run Netsh.exe interface ipv4 install.

Answer: C
Explanation:
[Need better justification]
Configuring static IP addresses
When you assign a static IP address, you need to tell the computer the IP address you want to use, the subnet mask for this IP address, and, if necessary, the default gateway to use for internetwork communications. An IP address is a numeric identifier for a computer. Ip addressing schemes vary according to how your network is configured, but they’re normally assigned based on a particular network segment.

QUESTION 8
Your network consists of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a computer named computer1.contoso.com. Your network is configured to use only IPv6. You need to request that a DNS record be created to enable users to connect to your computer by using the name dev.contoso.com.
Which type of record should you request?

A.    A
B.    AAAA
C.    HINFO
D.    NAPTR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The resolution of host names to IPv6 addresses is accomplished through DNS (apart from link-local addresses that are not stored by DNS and resolve automatically). The procedure is the same as for IPv4 address resolution with the computer name and IPv6 address pair being stored in a AAAA (quad-A) DNS resource record, which is equivalent to an A or host record for IPv4. Reverse DNS lookup that returns a computer name for an IPv6 address is implemented by a pointer (PTR) DNS resource record that is referred to the IPv6 reverse lookup zone (or tree) ipv6.arpa, which is the equivalent of the in-addr.arpa reverse lookup zone in Ipv4.
AAAAAn AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address.AAn A (address) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address.HINFOHost information (HINFO) resource record. Specifies the type of CPU and operating system in the cpu_type and os_type fields, respectively, for the host DNS domain name in the owner field. Well-known CPU and operating system types that are most often used are noted in RFC 1700. This information can be used by application protocols such as FTP, which use special procedures when communicating with computers of a known CPU and operating system type.
NAPTR
The NAPTR represents a Naming Authority Pointer. NAPTR records map between sets of URNs, URLs and plain domain names and suggest to clients what protocol should be used to talk to the mapped resource. Each NAPTR record contains a service name, a set of flags, a regexp rule, an order value, a preference and a replacement. Multiple records can be chained together in a cascade to rewrite URIs in fairly sophisticated, but deterministic ways. These cascading rules have been standardized in RFC2915 and RFC3403.

QUESTION 9
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All servers are located in the main office. All servers have BranchCache enabled. Users at the branch office report that it takes several minutes to open large files located in the main office. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for branch office users to open files located in the main office. The solution must also reduce the amount of bandwidth used between the two offices. What should you do?

A.    At the main office, configure the Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler on all servers.
B.    At the main office, configure the servers to use Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS).
C.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Hosted Cache mode.
D.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Distributed Cache mode.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Cache ModeDistributed Cache mode uses peer caching to host the branch office cache among clients running Windows 7 on the branch office network. This means that each Distributed Cache mode client hosts part of the cache, but no single client hosts all the cache. When a client running Windows 7 retrieves content over the WAN, it places that content into its own cache. If another BranchCache client running Windows 7 attempts to access the same content, it is able to access that content directly from the first client rather than having to retrieve it over the WAN link. When it accesses the file from its peer, it also copies that file into its own cache. The advantage of distributed cache mode is that you can deploy it without having to deploy a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 locally in each branch office. The drawback of Distributed Cache mode is that the contents of the cache available on the branch office LAN depend on which clients are currently online. If a client needs a file that is held in the cache of a computer that is shut down, the client needs to retrieve the file from the host server across the WAN.Hosted Cache ModeHosted Cache mode uses a centralized local cache that hosted on a branch office server running Windows Server 2008 R2. You can enable the hosted cache server functionality on a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 that you use for other functions without a significant impact on performance. This is because if you found that files hosted at another location across the WAN were being accessed so frequently that there was a performance impact, you would use a solution like Distributed File System (DFS) to replicate them to the branch office instead of using BranchCache. The advantage of Hosted Cache mode over Distributed Cache mode is that the cache is centralized and always available. Parts of the distributed cache become unavailable when the clients hosting them shut down.Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)The Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) has two role services: the Compact Server and the IIS Server Extension. The Compact Server is a stand-alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, whereas the IIS Server Extension is an Internet Information Services (IIS) plug-in that requires a server running IIS. IIS Server ExtensionThe BITS IIS Server Extension lets you configure a server that is running IIS to allow BITS clients to perform background, resumable file uploads to IIS virtual directories. On completion of a file upload, the BITS Server can notify a Web application of the newly uploaded file. This allows the application to process the uploaded file. The Web application can then optionally reply to the client responsible for the upload.Compact ServerThe BITS Compact Server is a stand- alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, which allows applications to host files for BITS clients to download, and allows the asynchronous transfer of a limited number of large files between computers.QoS Packet SchedulerThe Quality of Service Packet Scheduler is a Windows platform component that is enabled by default on Windows Vista and Windows XP computers. It is, however, not enabled by default on Windows 2003 computers. This scheduler is designed to control the IP traffic for various network services, including Real Time Communications traffic. This component must be installed and enabled if the QoS markings described earlier for audio and video traffic are to be implemented by the IP stack.

QUESTION 10
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create an Encrypting File System (EFS) recovery key and certificate. You need to ensure that your user account can decrypt all EFS files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    From Credential Manager, add a Windows credential.
B.    From Credential Manager, add a certificate-based credential.
C.    From the local computer policy, add a data recovery agent.
D.    From the local computer policy, modify the Restore files and directories setting.

Answer: C
Explanation:
EFS Recovery
Recovery Agents are certificates that allow the restoration of EFS encrypted files. When a recovery agent has been specified using local policies, all EFS encrypted files can be recovered using the recovery agent private key. You should specify a recovery agent before you allow users to encrypt files on a client running Windows 7. You can recover all files that users encrypt after the creation of a recovery agent using the recovery agent’s private key. You are not able to decrypt files that were encrypted before a recovery agent certificate was specified. You create an EFS recovery agent by performing the following steps:
1. Log on to the client running Windows 7 using the first account created, which is the default administrator account.
2. Open a command prompt and issue the command Cipher.exe /r:recoveryagent
3. This creates two files: Recoveryagent.cer and Recoveryagent.pfx. Cipher.exe prompts you to specify a password when creating Recoveryagent.pfx.
4. Open the Local Group Policy Editor and navigate to the \Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Public Key Policies\Encrypting File System node. Right-click this node and then click Add Data Recovery Agent. Specify the location of Recoveryagent.cer to specify this certificate as the recovery agent.
5. To recover files, use the certificates console to import Recoveryagent.pfx. This is the recovery agent’s private key. Keep it safe because it can be used to open any encrypted file on the client running Windows 7.

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QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[14]
Answer:
 clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[16]

Answer:
 clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:
 clip_image002[18]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[10]
Answer:
 clip_image001[12]

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A
 

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QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:
 clip_image002[12]
Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

 clip_image001
Answer:
 clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?

A.    Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B.    Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
C.    Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
D.    Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?

A.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
B.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
C.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
D.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.

A.    It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY.
B.    It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C.    It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D.    By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E.    It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?

A.    IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B.    IKM Hive Transform
C.    IKM SQL to File Append
D.    IKM FiletoHive

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/odi.htm

QUESTION 5
When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using a CKM?

A.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS queues.
B.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
C.    Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
D.    Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4
E.    -1

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the output of the following code?
echo “22” + “0.2”, 23 . 1;

A.    220.2231
B.    22.2231
C.    22.2,231
D.    56.2

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the output of the following code?
$first = “second”;
$second = “first”;
echo $$$first;

A.    “first”
B.    “second”
C.    an empty string
D.    an error

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your supervisor wants you to disallow PHP scripts to open remote HTTP and FTP resources using PHP’s file functions. Which php.ini setting should you change accordingly?
Answer: allow_url_fopen, allow_url_fopen=off, allow_url_fopen=Off, allow_url_fopen = off, allow_url_fopen = Off

QUESTION 5
Which of the following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file “source.txt” to “target.txt”? (Choose 2)

A.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, fopen(“source.txt”, “r”));
B.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, readfile(“source.txt”));
C.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, join(file(“source.txt”), “\n”));
D.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, file_get_contents(“source.txt”));
E.    $handle = fopen(“target.txt”, “w+”); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents(“source.txt”)); fclose($handle);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?

A.    copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B.    copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C.    stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D.    stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E.    stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?

A.    ini_set(“default_socket_timeout”, 10);
B.    stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C.    Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D.    stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E.    None of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What function allows resizing of PHP’s file write buffer?

A.    ob_start()
B.    set_write_buffer()
C.    stream_set_write_buffer()
D.    Change the output_buffering INI setting via ini_set() function

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does the __FILE__ constant contain?

A.    The filename of the current script.
B.    The full path to the current script.
C.    The URL of the request made.
D.    The path to the main script.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What can prevent PHP from being able to open a file on the hard drive (Choose 2)?

A.    File system permissions
B.    File is outside of open_basedir
C.    File is inside the /tmp directory.
D.    PHP is running in CGI mode.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
What purpose do namespaces fulfill?

A.    Encapsulation
B.    Alternative to classes
C.    Improved performance
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
When would you use classes and when would you use namespaces?

A.    Use classes to encapsulate code and represent objects, and namespaces to avoid symbol name collisions
B.    Use classes for performance-sensitive code, and namespaces when readability matters more
C.    Use namespaces for performance-sensitive code, and classes when readability matters more
D.    Always use them; namespaces are always superior to classes

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of these elements can be encapsulated by namespaces and made accessible from the outside?

A.    Only classes
B.    Classes, functions and constants
C.    Classes, functions, constants and variables

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
HP Intelligent Management Centers (IMC’s) Intelligent Configuration Center and Access Control List (ACL) Manager align with which FCAPS category?

A.    Performance
B.    Fault
C.    Accounting
D.    Configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to implement a network access control solution to ensure that only devices which meet company policies are allowed to access the network. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) modules should you recommend?

A.    Branch Intelligent Management System (BIMS) and Service Health Manager
B.    User Access Management (UAM) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
C.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
D.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Intelligent Analysis Reporter

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which switch series supports meshed stacking, a feature that is similar to Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)?

A.    HP 3500 Switch Series
B.    HP 3800 Switch Series
C.    HP 5400 21 Switch Series
D.    HP 5500 HI Switch Series

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/HP-Networking/5-network-stacking-technology-benefits- Intelligent-Resilient/ba-p/122081#.UweFeUKSxHg

QUESTION 4
Which router would you recommend for a large campus that requires the highest performance?

A.    HP MSR930 Series
B.    HP MSR2000 Series
C.    HP HSR6600 Router Series
D.    HP HSR6800 Router Series

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/routers/HP_HSR6800_Router_Series/ind ex.aspx

QUESTION 5
A company needs a data center network solution that isolates different departments’ traffic completely to maintain regulatory compliance. It also needs to save space and purchase as few physical switches as possible. Which HP FlexFabric switch technology meets these needs?

A.    HP Multitenant Device Context (MDC)
B.    HP Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
C.    HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D.    HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2Fc03597043.pdf (page 73)
 

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QUESTION 71
Your company has three data centers. The data centers are located in Montreal, New York, and Seattle.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[24]
The organization is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[34]
The file share witness for DAG1 is located on EX3. You plan to implement site resiliency and use a single name space named mail.contoso.com. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of time that the Exchange Server services are unavailable if either the data center in Montreal or the data center in Seattle fails. Which two tasks should you recommend performing? (Each correct answer presents part of solution.
Choose two.)

A.    Deploy a hardware load balancer to EX3 and EX6.
B.    Create two DNS host (A) records for mail.contoso.com.
C.    Configure EX6 as an alternate file share witness.
D.    Move the file share witness to Server1.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 72
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy. The mode of the DLP policy is set to Enforce.
You need to ensure that email messages containing social security numbers from the United States are blocked.
Which two possible rules achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    U.S. State Breach: Allow Override
B.    U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – low count
C.    U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – high count
D.    U.S. State Breach: Scan text limit exceeded
E.    U.S. State Breach: Attachment not supported

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Note:
* In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, you can use data loss prevention (DLP) policy templates to help meet the messaging policy and compliance needs of your organization. These templates contain pre-built sets of rules that can help you manage message data that is associated with several common legal and regulatory requirements.
* DLP policy templates in Exchange include:
U.S. State Breach Notification Laws
Helps detect the presence of information subject to U.S. State Breach Notification Laws, including data like social security and credit card numbers.

QUESTION 73
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment. The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B.    Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C.    Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D.    Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E.    Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 74
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes.
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Export the administrator audit log.
B.    Run an administrator role group report.
C.    Export the mailbox audit log.
D.    Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E.    Review the security event log.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log.
/ The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

QUESTION 75
Hotspot Question
Your company implements Exchange Server 2013 Unified Messaging (UM).
The company uses an auto attendant.
You need to ensure that when calls are routed to the auto attendant, callers can press 0 to reach a receptionist.
Which option should you configure from the UM Auto Attendant window? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
 clip_image002[36]
Answer:
 clip_image002[38]

QUESTION 76
Hotspot Question
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image002[40]
SiteA contains an IP gateway that uses a dial plan named Dialplan1. SiteB contains a Lync Server 2013 server that uses a dial plan named Dialplan2. You plan to migrate all Unified Messaging (UM) functionalities to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to identify which tasks must be performed to complete the migration. Which tasks should you identify?
(To answer, select the tasks that are required and not required in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[26]
Answer:
 clip_image001[28]

QUESTION 77
Hotspot Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All users are enabled for Unified Messaging (UM) and access their voice mail by using Microsoft Lync 2010. Callers report that when they press a key to dial an external telephone number, they hear a message indicating that the intended destination cannot be reached.
You need to ensure that the callers can reach the external number successfully. What should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.
 clip_image002[42]
Answer:
 clip_image002[44]

QUESTION 78
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?

A.    Update-PublicFolderMailbox
B.    New-PublicFolderMoveRequest
C.    New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D.    Set-PublicFolderMailbox

Answer: B
Explanation:
* If the content of a public folder mailbox begins to exceed your mailbox quotas, you may need to move public folders to a different public folder mailbox. There are a couple ways to do this. To move one or more public folders that don’t contain subfolders, you can use the PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlets.
* Use the New-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to begin the process of moving public folder contents between public folder mailboxes. Moving public folders only moves the physical contents of the public folder; it doesn’t change the logical hierarchy. When the move request is completed, you must run the Remove-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to remove the request or wait until the time specified in the CompletedRequestAgeLimit parameter has passed. The request must be removed before you can run another move request.
Incorrect:
Not A: Use the Update-PublicFolderMailbox cmdlet to update the hierarchy for public folders.
Not C: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Reference: Move a Public Folder to a Different Public Folder Mailbox

QUESTION 79
Your company has three offices. Each office has 1,000 users and is configured as an Active Directory site. Each site connects directly to the Internet.
The network contains six servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[30]
An administrator performs a datacenter switchover by changing the DNS record for webl.adatum.com to point to the IP address of web2.adatum.com.
Users from Main1 report that when they connect to Outlook Web App, they receive a certificate warning message.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users do not receive a certificate warning message when a datacenter switchover is performed.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Three host headers for the Default Web Site on each Client Access server
B.    One certificate that contains all of the external names as subject alternative names
C.    Three certificates that each contains one of the external names
D.    An external URL for each Client Access server set to $null

Answer: B

QUESTION 80
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B.    On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C.    On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D.    On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E.    On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group
for all of the public folders.
F.    On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server Step 5: Start the migration request
Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server <Source server name>) -CSVData (Get-Content <Folder to mailbox map path> -Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required)
Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required) Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration

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