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QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which two steps should an administrator take to remove an Access Gateway appliance from an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    The administrator should execute the “Remove Access Gateway” task from the “Gateway Appliances” node in the Access Management Console.
B.    The administrator should restart at least one Advanced Access Control server in the farm after configuring the Access Gateway appliance to be removed.
C.    The administrator should configure the Access Gateway appliance server so that it no longer points itself to an Advanced Access Control server in the deployment.
D.    The administrator should uncheck the “Access Gateway” role checkbox for the Access Gateway appliance to be removed in the “Manage Server Roles” dialog of the Access Management Console.

Answer: AC

Read more

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA server.

Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?

A.    LDAP password
B.    Firewall access rule
C.    Authentication policy
D.    RADIUS shared secret

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Your ScreenOS device does not have a static IP address. You want to be able to access it using its FQDN. How would you implement this task?

A.    Configure a domain in DNS.
B.    Configure syslog.
C.    Configure SNMP.
D.    Configure DDNS.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have just installed a new ScreenOS device in your network and you want only a select range of IP addresses to have administrative access to the device. Which choice will allow you to accomplish this?

A.    Configure a manager IP.
B.    Configure the management interface.
C.    Configure a management IP on the trust interface.
D.    Configure new system administrators.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A routing table contains an IBGP route for 192.168.0.0/24, a RIP route for 192.168.0.0/23, an OSPF route for 192.168.0.0/22, and a static route for 192.168.0.0/16. When the router receives traffic destined for 192.168.0.1, which route will the router use?

A.    the IBGP route
B.    the OSPF route
C.    the RIP route
D.    the static route

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting telnet traffic destined to IP address 10.10.10.1. You decide to run debug and want to set the flow filter. Which command will show only the telnet traffic going to the 10.10.10.1 address?

A.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1
ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
B.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1 dst-port 23
C.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
D.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have enabled BGP on your ScreenOS device and configured a single EBGP peer. The CLI shows that the BGP connection is transitioning between the CONNECT and ACTIVE states, but never reaching the ESTABLISHED state. What are three reasons for this behavior? (Choose three.)

A.    The peer is blocking traffic destined for TCP port 179.
B.    The peer address is not configured correctly.
C.    The enable statement has not been configured for the peer.
D.    The peer AS number is not configured correctly.
E.    BGP has not been enabled on the virtual router.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based routing table or the destination-based routing table. What should you do?

A.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have the following BGP configuration in place to establish a session with a remote peer over your ethernet4 interface.
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp 65000
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp enable
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor remote-as 65500
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor enable
Which additional statement is necessary to establish the session?

A.    set interface protocol bgp enable
B.    set interface ethernet4 bgp enable
C.    set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp interface ethernet4
D.    set interface ethernet4 protocol bgp

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have only one public IP address available and you must allow external access to three servers on a DMZ network. Which two NAT types would allow you to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP
B.    VIP
C.    NAT-dst
D.    NAT-src

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your ScreenOS device is configured with multiple NAT types.
What is the order of precedence in this situation?

A.    interface-based NAT -> VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT
B.    VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT
C.    MIP -> VIP -> interface-based NAT -> policy-based NAT
D.    MIP -> VIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You must translate a range of public IP addresses to a range of internal IP addresses. Which two mechanisms would you use to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP using masks
B.    VIP using masks
C.    policy-based NAT-dst
D.    policy-based NAT-src

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You enter the following commands:
snoop filter ip dst-ip 1.1.1.10
snoop filter ip src-ip 2.1.1.10
What is the net result of these settings?

A.    Only packets with both a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 and a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
B.    Packets that have either a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 or packets with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
C.    The second command will be ignored since a second filter cannot be added until the first one has been deleted
D.    The second command you entered will overwrite the first command you entered so you will only capture traffic with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which OSPF LSA type is sent from the ABR to describe an ASBR that is in an area to which it is connected?

A.    Type 7
B.    Type 5
C.    Type 4
D.    Type 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button. You are asked to configure a new external BGP peering. You have configured BGP on R1 as shown in the exhibit, however the BGP peering remains in Active state.
Which additional configuration is required on R1 to establish the BGP peering?
 clip_image002[4]

A.    Configure the local-address.
B.    Configure the BGP type as external.
C.    Remove the local-as statement.
D.    Remove the autonomous-system statement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which OSPF adjacency state is reached when a hello packet has been sent, but bidirectional communication has not been established?

A.    Down
B.    Init
C.    2-way
D.    ExStart

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Based on the exhibit, which configuration will permit end-to-end routing through the GRE tunnel for R1?
 clip_image001[8]

A.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 12.168.1.1;
B.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;
C.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..1.1;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
D.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..2.2;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two OSPF areas allow external routes? (Choose two.)

A.    backbone area
B.    not-so-stubby area
C.    stub area
D.    totally stubby area

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which LSA packet types are originated only by an OSPF ABR router?

A.    Type 2 and Type 3
B.    Type 3 and Type 4
C.    Type 5 and Type 6
D.    Type 6 and Type 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In an OSPF environment, which two configuration parameters are used to determine which router is the DR? (Choose two.)

A.    the router with the highest priority
B.    the router with the lowest priority
C.    the router with the highest RID
D.    the router with the lowest RID

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You have entered the show ospf route command and see routes with a metric type of EXT2.
What does this indicate?

A.    These routes are OSPF interarea routes.
B.    These routes have been redistributed into OSPF and are using a Type 2 metric.
C.    These routes are preferred over the same routes with an EXT1 metric.
D.    These routes are OSPF intra-area routes.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You want to verify the frequency and type of SPF calculations on your Junos device.
Which command displays this information?

A.    show ospf database | match log
B.    show spf log
C.    show ospf log
D.    show ospf statistics

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency that is stuck in the ExStart state.
What would be the correct step to resolve the problem?

A.    Look for a mismatched IP subnet or mask.
B.    Determine whether the neighbor is a DR-Other.
C.    Determine whether the hello and dead intervals are the same on both sides.
D.    Review the MTU settings to ensure that they match.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are asked to redistribute routes into OSPF.
Which action accomplishes this task?

A.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf area] hierarchy.
B.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
C.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import or an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are configuring OSPF on a Junos device; however, you have not configured a router ID.
What is the default behavior in this situation?

A.    If the loopback is configured with a 127/8 address, it will be used.
B.    If the loopback is not configured, it will use the interface with the highest IP address.
C.    If the loopback is configured and does not have a usable address, the IP address associated with the first hardware interface is used.
D.    If you configure a dedicated management address and include that interface in OSPF, it will be
used as the router ID.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements correctly describe IS-IS adjacencies? (Choose two.)

A.    Level 1 adjacencies can form in the same (intra) area only.
B.    Level 2 adjacencies are formed between (inter) areas only.
C.    Level 2 adjacencies can be established either interarea or intra-area.
D.    Level 2 adjacencies can form within the same (intra) area only.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which IS-IS PDU is used to request a retransmission of a missing link-state packet?

A.    the complete sequence number PDU
B.    the partial sequence number PDU
C.    a hello PDU with a request PDU TLV specifying the missing LSP
D.    a hello PDU with a refresh PDU TLV requesting all LSPs

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What does Junos Pulse Collaboration provide?

A.    group instant messaging services
B.    Web-based meeting services
C.    corporate file sharing services
D.    conference call services

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What does Secure Virtual Workspace (SVW) provide?

A.    a virtual desktop on a client desktop
B.    protected file storage on a remote server
C.    a protected workspace on a client virtual machine
D.    a protected workspace on the client desktop

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which platform supports the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service?

A.    MX Series
B.    SRX Series
C.    MAG Series
D.    EX Series

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What are two valid Junos Pulse Secure Access Service clustering implementations? (Choose two.)

A.    passive/passive
B.    active/passive
C.    online/offline
D.    active/active

Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
The Junos Pulse client connects to which two Juniper Networks services? (Choose two.)

A.    Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
B.    Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C.    Unified Threat Management
D.    Intrusion Detection Prevention

Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which two server instances would be used as secondary authentication servers on the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service? (Choose two.)

A.    RADIUS server
B.    anonymous server
C.    Active Directory server
D.    certificate server

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the functionality of the client standalone installer? (Choose two.)

A.    All Windows clients are available as standalone installers, except Host Checker.
B.    Juniper Installer Service client deployment requires administrative privileges.
C.    Juniper Installer Service client can be deployed using the automated Microsoft Systems Management
Server (SMS) service.
D.    Clients deployed using Juniper Installer Service require post-installation machine reboot.

Answer: BC
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QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, R1, R2, and R3 boot at the same time. Several minutes later, R4 boots.
After R4 has been online for 40 seconds, which router will be the OSPF designated router?
 clip_image001
A.    R1
B.    R2
C.    R3
D.    R4

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
routing-options {
router-id 10.10.1.2;
}
policy-options {
policy-statement loadbalance {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 100.100.0.0/16 exact;
}
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
Referring to the exhibit, you have configured a load balancing policy and the router has an equal cost path for traffic to 10.100.0.0/16.
What must you do to complete the load balancing configuration?

A.    Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
B.    Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
C.    Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.
D.    Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button. All OSPF routers shown in the exhibit booted at the same time, and the network has stabilized. How many adjacencies does R1 have?
 clip_image001[4]
A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    3

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button. You have two routers, R1 and R2, running OSPF in area 0. Router R1 is having problems with forming and adjacency with Router R2.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct about the OSPF configuration in the Router R1 trace output?
 clip_image002
A.    Router R1 has the wrong OSPF area configured.
B.    Router R2 has the wrong OSPF area configured.
C.    Router R1 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.
D.    Router R2 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Click the Exhibit button.
user@Switch-1# run show dhcp snooping binding
DHCP Snooping Information:
MAC address IP address Lease (seconds) Type VLAN Interface
00:26:88:02:74:89 172.28.1.4 – static default ge-0/0/9.0
00:26:88:02:74:86 172.28.1.2 86113 dynamic default ge-0/0/6.0
00:26:88:02:74:87 172.28.1.3 86378 dynamic default ge-0/0/7.0
DHCP snooping is implemented on an EX Series switch. The results display a static MAC to IP binding on interface ge-0/0/9 as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is correct?

A.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address configured for a host attached to interface ge-0/0/9.
B.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address binding in the DHCP server.
C.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address configured on the L3 interface ge-0/0/9.
D.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static address assigned using the command set interface ge-0/0/9.0 mac-allowed 00:26:88:02:74:89.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.
policy-statement load-balance {
from {
route-filter 172.24.0.0/24 exact;
route-filter 172.24.1.0/24 exact;
}
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
Referring to the exhibit, which command or set of commands completes the configuration that will load balance packets to destinations 172.24.0.0 and 172.24.0.1?

A.    Set forwarding-options load-balance
B.    Set routing-options forwarding-table export load-balance
C.    Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 policy load-balance
D.    Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 load-balance
E.    Set forwarding-options export policy load-balance
F.    Set forwarding-options load-balance

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.
[edit]
user@router# show routing-options
graceful-restart {
disable;
}
[edit]
user@router# show protocols bgp
graceful-restart;
group my-group {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.1.1;
neighbor 192.168.1.2;
neighbor 192.168.2.2 {
graceful-restart {
disable;
}
}
}
You have configured your router as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is true based on the graceful restart (GR) configuration?

A.    GR has been disabled globally for all protocols including BGP.
B.    GR is enabled for all BGP neighbors.
C.    GR is enabled only for BGP neighbor 192.168.1.2.
D.    GR is not supported with BGP.

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, which interfaces will receive a packet sent to MAC address 00:05:85:7F:EB. 80 from the user with IP address 10.10.10.10?
 clip_image001[6]

A.    0/0/3 and 0/0/22
B.    0/0/9 and 0/0/23
C.    0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23
D.    0/0/1, 0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are using redundant trunk groups (RTG) on your network.
Which two statements accurately describe RTG? (Choose two.)

A.    RTG interfaces pass BPDU packets.
B.    Aggregate Ethernet (AE) interfaces cannot be part of an RTG.
C.    RTG is used as an alternative to STP/RSTP.
D.    RTG connects an access switch to two aggregation switches.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which two packet types are handled solely by the RE within an EX4200? (Choose two.)

A.    OSPF hellos
B.    DHCP relay
C.    STP BPDUs
D.    IP multicast traffic

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which statement is correct regarding the VLAN factory-default configuration on an EX Series
switch?

A.    The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 0.
B.    The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 10.
C.    The default configuration assigns all switch ports to the default VLAN.
D.    The default configuration assigns the management port only to the default VLAN.

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Under which hierarchy do you configure OSPF?

A.    [edit protocols ospf]
B.    [edit routing-options]
C.    [edit routing-protocols]
D.    [edit protocols igp]

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You add a GRE tunnel to transport packets between two routers. After implementing this, you notice an increase in the number of dropped packets. While looking at packet captures, you notice that the do-not-fragment (DF) bit is set in the IP header of all the dropped packets.
What would cause this changed behavior?

A.    The GRE tunnel has a lower MTU than the physical interface.
B.    GRE tunnels do not support fragmentation.
C.    GRE tunnels do not support the DF bit.
D.    The GRE tunnel has a higher MTU than the physical interface.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three statements are correct about a Junos firewall filter? (Choose three.)

A.    It examines each packet individually.
B.    It tracks connections and allows you to specify an action to take on all packets within a flow.
C.    It requires you to configure the Junos operating system to explicitly allow traffic in both directions for each connection that you want to permit.
D.    It permits the initial connection and then automatically permits bidirectional communications for this connection.
E.    It is stateless in nature and is used by the software to control traffic passing through the device.

Answer: ACE
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QUESTION 1
Which network mask is the equivalent of 255.255.248.0?

A.    /20
B.    /21
C.    /22
D.    /23

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which login class permission will allow a user to use the telnet utility?

A.    Network permission
B.    Maintenance permission
C.    Supervisor permission
D.    Shell permission

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command do you issue to upgrade the current software on Junos devices?

A.    request system software replace
B.    request system software install
C.    request system software add
D.    request system software upgrade

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about terms in a policy?

A.    A single term can be applied to a protocol or interface, independent of the policy.
B.    Once configured, terms within a policy cannot be reordered.
C.    The name of a term is limited to five characters.
D.    A from statement is optional in a term.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the decimal equivalent of 10101010?

A.    182
B.    180
C.    172
D.    170

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Two devices on an Ethernet segment sent frames at the same time causing a collision.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Both devices stop transmitting, wait a random period of time, verify the wire is idle, and re- transmit.
B.    The device with the lowest MAC address is permitted to retransmit first.
C.    The device with the lowest MAC address sends a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.
D.    Both devices send a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
You issue the command telnet interface ge-1/1/0 10.10.10.1 source 192.168.100.1 bypass-routing.
Which statement is correct?

A.    The bypass-routing parameter is ignored when using private IP addressing.
B.    The telnet session will have the source IP address 10.10.10.1.
C.    The telnet session will connect to the neighboring device’s interface ge-1/1/0.
D.    Return traffic for the telnet session might not arrive at interface ge-1/1/0.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    Each process runs in its own protected memory space ensuring that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
B.    Processes share memory space but use separate ASICs so that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
C.    A central processor called the IP2 Chip dynamically assigns memory as process needs fluctuate.
D.    The memory management daemon (mmd) is responsible for allocating new memory for processes as they request it.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements apply when a user has entered private configuration mode by typing configure private? (Choose two.)

A.    All users have their own active configuration.
B.    All users have their own private candidate configuration.
C.    When a user commits, all nonconflicting changes made by all users are committed.
D.    When a user commits, only the user’s own changes are committed.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the default SNMP permission level on Junos devices?

A.    read
B.    read-write
C.    read-only
D.    write

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true of a network mask? (Choose two.)

A.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a binary format.
B.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a decimal format.
C.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents a network prefix.
D.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents network hosts.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    The Junos kernel is based on the Solaris operating system.
B.    The Junos kernel is based on the GNU Zebra operating system.
C.    The Junos kernel is completely original and not based on any other operating system.
D.    The Junos kernel is based on the FreeBSD UNIX operating system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How can you verify that you have correctly configured SSH access to your Junos device?

A.    user@router# show system services
B.    user@router> show configuration services
C.    user@router# show configuration system services
D.    user@router# show system login

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true regarding the password-recovery process?

A.    You must have a console connection.
B.    You cannot set the console port to an insecure mode.
C.    You must press the Enter key so that you can boot into single-user mode.
D.    When prompted to enter the full pathname of the shell, you must press the Enter key.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are at the top of the hierarchy and must configure OSPF on interface so-0/0/0 unit 100.
Which two achieve this result? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols
set ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.    set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.    edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.    edit protocols ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100

Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?

A.    Dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices, unlike static routing.
B.    Dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration, unlike static routing.
C.    Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
D.    Dynamic routing typically requires less time to implement than static routing in a large network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?

A.    It uses ASICs for increased performance.
B.    It is the intelligence of the platform.
C.    It maintains the routing tables.
D.    It is based on an x86 architecture.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two can be used to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to RIP neighbors? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols rip export demo
B.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static
set term 1 then accept
C.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static accept
D.    set protocols rip group internal export demo

Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A.    NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B.    NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C.    The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D.    With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is OpenID used for?

A.    to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B.    to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C.    to pay on-line via your own bank account
D.    to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?

A.    by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B.    by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C.    by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D.    by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?

A.    because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B.    because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C.    because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D.    because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is an example of the use of location information?

A.    to determine the user’s native language
B.    to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C.    to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D.    to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system

Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Failover is the capacity to switch, often automatically, to another system or resource in the event of a failure. How does failover assist in the provision of cloud services?

A.    It assists providers in ensuring continuity of service when there is a problem.
B.    It automatically restarts the system in case of a failure.
C.    It builds a back-up while the system is active.
D.    It provides hidden storage to be used when needed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?

A.    It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B.    It offers more security at home than at the office.
C.    It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D.    It does not require a network connection.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How might moving to the Cloud have a negative impact on users?

A.    Development is no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
B.    Software licensing is no longer part of operations.
C.    Support and maintenance are no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
D.    Uptimes can be guaranteed but not adjusted in a flexible manner.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is not a staffing benefit of Cloud computing?

A.    Fewer IT-staff
B.    Lower employee benefits
C.    Lower recruitment costs
D.    Lower self-service costs

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which process is an external process for a Cloud data center?

A.    Availability management
B.    Capacity management
C.    Service continuity management
D.    Service level management

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is meant by Virtualization?

A.    Virtualization means that data does not exist anywhere.
B.    Virtualization is a method to combine more computing power onto one server.
C.    Virtualization is a method to combine multiple computer environments onto one server.
D.    Virtualization means that no real computer system is needed to distribute cloud solutions.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?

A.    Define quality responsibilities
B.    Gain acceptance of the project product
C.    Agree acceptance criteria
D.    Set quality tolerances

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which should be provided by a project mandate?

A.    Terms of reference
B.    Detailed Business Case
C.    Stage tolerances
D.    Initiation Stage Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?

A.    Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B.    Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C.    Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D.    Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which should be funded by a change budget?

A.    Increase in agreed scope
B.    Initiation stage
C.    Change Authority
D.    Handover activities

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes a use of a Configuration Item Record?

A.    Define the identification scheme to be applied to the project
B.    Identify the techniques and procedures required within the Work Package
C.    Record the change in a product’s status
D.    Record the reporting requirements for the Work Package

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations?

A.    Produces benefits
B.    Introduces business change
C.    Manages stakeholders
D.    Incurs cost

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager?

A.    Starting up a Project
B.    Managing a Stage Boundary
C.    Managing Product Delivery
D.    Directing a Project

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Where should an off-specification be recorded?

A.    Risk Register
B.    Issue Register
C.    Work Package
D.    Configuration Management Strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
During the Managing a Stage Boundary process what product is updated with estimated costs and time for the stage that is about to begin?

A.    End Stage Report
B.    Team Plan
C.    Work Package
D.    Project Plan

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

A.    Provides a defined structure of accountability, delegation, authority and communication
B.    Includes techniques for critical path analysis and earned value analysis
C.    Enables a Project Manager to be accountable for the success of a project
D.    Prevents any changes once the scope of a project has been agreed

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is FALSE?

A.    A project outcome perceived to be negative by one or more stakeholders is a dis-benefit
B.    A project’s output is any of the project’s specialist products
C.    A project benefit is only realized after the project has closed
D.    A project outcome is the result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which is a responsibility of the managing level within the project management team?

A.    Set project tolerances
B.    Approve stage completion
C.    Ensure that the products are produced within the constraints agreed with the Project Board
D.    Appoint the project management team

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about stakeholders are true?
1. Someone who thinks they will be affected by a project is a stakeholder on that project
2. Stakeholders may be internal or external to the corporate organization

A.    Only 1 is true
B.    Only 2 is true
C.    Both 1 and 2 are true
D.    Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which is a purpose of quality planning?

A.    Define the structure of the project management team
B.    Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project’s product
C.    Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria
D.    Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A.    Incident and financial management
B.    Change and release and deployment management
C.    Incident and event management
D.    Knowledge and service level management

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A.    Change proposal
B.    Change policy
C.    Service request
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
(1) Local service desk
(2) Virtual service desk
(3) IT help desk
(4) Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
(1) To automatically detect service-affecting events
(2) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
(3) To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A.    1 and 2 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1 and 3 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A.    Technical management
B.    Emergency change advisory board
C.    Urgent change board
D.    Urgent change authority

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A.    To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B.    To provide training and certification in project management
C.    To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D.    To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
(1) Those planned to be delivered
(2) Those being delivered
(3) Those that have been withdrawn from service

A.    1 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of an incident is:

A.    An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.    An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C.    Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.    Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A.    Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B.    Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C.    Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D.    What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When can a known error record be raised?
(1) At any time it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found

A.    2 only
B.    1 only
C.    Neither of the above
D.    Both of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A.    The change authorization board
B.    The change advisory board
C.    The change implementer
D.    The change manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Continual service improvement
B.    Change management
C.    Service level management
D.    Availability management

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A.    The value of a service
B.    Governance
C.    Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D.    Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A.    Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B.    Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C.    Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D.    Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A.    Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B.    Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C.    Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D.    Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?

A.    Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B.    Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER (V_ID IN NUMBER, V_LAST_NAME VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER (ID,LAST_NAME) VALUES (V_ID, V_LAST_NAME);
COMMIT;
END;
This procedure must invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure and pass a parameter. Which statement, when added to the above procedure, will successfully invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure?

A.    EXECUTE UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
B.    UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
C.    RUN UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
D.    START UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three describe a stored procedure? (Choose three.)

A.    A stored procedure is typically written in SQL.
B.    By default, a stored procedure executes with the privileges of its owner.
C.    A stored procedure has three parts: the specification, the body, and the exception handler part .
D.    A stored procedure is stored in the database and can be shared by a number of programs.
E.    A stored procedure offers some advantages over a standalone SQL statement, such as programmable functionality and compiled code.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID in NUMBER, V_CITY in VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ‘AUSTIN’, V_NAME in VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO TEAM (id, city, name) VALUES (v_id, v_city, v_name);
COMMIT;
END;
Which two statements will successfully invoke this procedure in SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)

A.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM;
B.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3, V_NAME=>’LONGHORNS’, V_CITY=>’AUSTIN’);
C.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3,’AUSTIN’,’LONGHORNS’);
D.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID := 3, V_NAME := ‘LONGHORNS’, V_CITY := ‘AUSTIN’);
E.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (3,’LONGHORNS’);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
You need to create a DML trigger. Which five pieces need to be identified? (Choose five.)

A.    table
B.    DML event
C.    trigger body
D.    package body
E.    package name
F.    trigger name
G.    system event
H.    trigger timing

Answer: ABCFH

QUESTION 6
This statement fails when executed: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER CALC_TEAM_AVG AFTER INSERT ON PLAYER BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER_BAT_STAT (PLAYER_ID, SEASON_YEAR,AT_BATS,HITS) VALUES (:NEW.ID, 1997, 0,0); END; To which type must you convert the trigger to correct the error?

A.    row
B.    statement
C.    ORACLE FORM trigger
D.    before

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The add_player , upd_player_stat , and upd_pitcher_stat procedures are grouped together in a package. A variable must be shared among only these procedures. Where should you declare this variable?

A.    in the package body
B.    in a database trigger
C.    in the package specification
D.    in each procedure’s DECLARE section, using the exact same name in each

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine this package:
  clip_image001[12]
Which statement is true?

A.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE always remains 0.00 in a session.
B.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 each time the package is invoked in a session.
C.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 1.00 each time the procedure DISPLAY_PRICE is invoked.
D.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 when the package is invoked for the first time in a session.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[14]
Which statement is true?

A.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Smith.
B.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Jones.
C.    g_comm has a value of 20 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
D.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:03am for both Jones and Smith.
E.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
F.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:03 for both Jones and Smith.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[16]
Which statement removes the function?

A.    DROP gen_email_name;
B.    REMOVE gen_email_name;
C.    DELETE gen_email_name;
D.    TRUNCATE gen_email_name;
E.    DROP FUNCTION gen_email_name;
F.    ALTER FUNCTION gen_email_name REMOVE;

Answer: E
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QUESTION 1
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
————————– ——————————- —————————
undo_management string AUTO
undo_retentioninteger 12 00
undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A.    Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B.    Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C.    You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D.    An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:
1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.
How would you accomplish this?

A.    by granting a secure application role to the user
B.    by implementing Database Resource Manager
C.    by using Oracle Label Security options
D.    by assigning a profile to the user

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database. Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING ‘HQ’;
B.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ’ S
C.    CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
D.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A.    The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B.    The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C.    The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D.    The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
– Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
– The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
– The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A.    a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B.    a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C.    a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D.    a default database configuration

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?

A.    An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B.    An extent can span multiple segments,
C.    Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D.    It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E.    A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures?

A.    A segment cannot span data files.
B.    A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C.    An extent cannot span data files.
D.    The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A.    It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B.    It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C.    It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D.    It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes. Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A.    connecting by using an external naming method
B.    connecting by using the easy connect method
C.    creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service”
D.    connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E.    connecting by using a directory naming method

Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?

A.    partitioning the table
B.    creating an invisible index
C.    updating the table by using an update statement
D.    creating a public synonym
E.    creating a view

Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A.    It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B.    It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C.    It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D.    It cannot have more than one dependency.
E.    It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it. Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?

A.    Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B.    Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C.    Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D.    Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E.    Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan?

A.    the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B.    operating system (OS) statistics
C.    cardinality estimates
D.    object statistics in the data dictionary
E.    fixed baselines

Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS
CPU_WAIT_TIME
———————————– ——————– ——————– ——————— —————-
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467
OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 02420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004
55700
Which two statements are true?

A.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E.    A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 15
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A.    The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B.    All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C.    The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D.    The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Answer: C
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