Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(7-15)!

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[14]
Answer:
 clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[16]

Answer:
 clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:
 clip_image002[18]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[10]
Answer:
 clip_image001[12]

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A
 

If you want to pass the Microsoft 98-379 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(1-6)!

QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:
 clip_image002[12]
Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

 clip_image001
Answer:
 clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

If you want to pass the Microsoft 98-379 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-482 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?

A.    Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B.    Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
C.    Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
D.    Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?

A.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
B.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
C.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
D.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.

A.    It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY.
B.    It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C.    It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D.    By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E.    It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?

A.    IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B.    IKM Hive Transform
C.    IKM SQL to File Append
D.    IKM FiletoHive

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/odi.htm

QUESTION 5
When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using a CKM?

A.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS queues.
B.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
C.    Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
D.    Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.

Answer: A

If you want to pass the Oracle 1Z0-482 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Oracle 1Z0-482 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

If you want to pass the CompTIA SY0-401 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest CompTIA SY0-401 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-550 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4
E.    -1

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the output of the following code?
echo “22” + “0.2”, 23 . 1;

A.    220.2231
B.    22.2231
C.    22.2,231
D.    56.2

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the output of the following code?
$first = “second”;
$second = “first”;
echo $$$first;

A.    “first”
B.    “second”
C.    an empty string
D.    an error

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your supervisor wants you to disallow PHP scripts to open remote HTTP and FTP resources using PHP’s file functions. Which php.ini setting should you change accordingly?
Answer: allow_url_fopen, allow_url_fopen=off, allow_url_fopen=Off, allow_url_fopen = off, allow_url_fopen = Off

QUESTION 5
Which of the following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file “source.txt” to “target.txt”? (Choose 2)

A.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, fopen(“source.txt”, “r”));
B.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, readfile(“source.txt”));
C.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, join(file(“source.txt”), “\n”));
D.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, file_get_contents(“source.txt”));
E.    $handle = fopen(“target.txt”, “w+”); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents(“source.txt”)); fclose($handle);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?

A.    copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B.    copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C.    stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D.    stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E.    stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?

A.    ini_set(“default_socket_timeout”, 10);
B.    stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C.    Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D.    stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E.    None of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What function allows resizing of PHP’s file write buffer?

A.    ob_start()
B.    set_write_buffer()
C.    stream_set_write_buffer()
D.    Change the output_buffering INI setting via ini_set() function

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does the __FILE__ constant contain?

A.    The filename of the current script.
B.    The full path to the current script.
C.    The URL of the request made.
D.    The path to the main script.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What can prevent PHP from being able to open a file on the hard drive (Choose 2)?

A.    File system permissions
B.    File is outside of open_basedir
C.    File is inside the /tmp directory.
D.    PHP is running in CGI mode.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
What purpose do namespaces fulfill?

A.    Encapsulation
B.    Alternative to classes
C.    Improved performance
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
When would you use classes and when would you use namespaces?

A.    Use classes to encapsulate code and represent objects, and namespaces to avoid symbol name collisions
B.    Use classes for performance-sensitive code, and namespaces when readability matters more
C.    Use namespaces for performance-sensitive code, and classes when readability matters more
D.    Always use them; namespaces are always superior to classes

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of these elements can be encapsulated by namespaces and made accessible from the outside?

A.    Only classes
B.    Classes, functions and constants
C.    Classes, functions, constants and variables

Answer: B

If you want to pass the Zend 200-550 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend 200-550 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download(11-15)!

QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

If you want to pass the Zend 200-500 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend 200-500 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

If you want to pass the Zend 200-500 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend 200-500 Demo full version.

2014 Latest HP HP2-Z30 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?

A.    802.1X
B.    MIMO
C.    802.1Z
D.    WPA

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?

A.    5120-SI
B.    9 5820
C.    7500
D.    12500

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?

A.    Log Parser
B.    Event Analyzer
C.    Information Center
D.    Event Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?

A.    username of “hp” and password of “hp”
B.    username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
C.    username of “admin” and password of “hp”
D.    username of “admin” and password of “admin”

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?

A.    Operator
B.    Administrator
C.    Manager
D.    Maintainer

Answer: D

If you want to pass the HP HP2-Z30 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest HPHP2-Z30 Demo full version.

2014 Latest HP HP2-Z28 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
HP Intelligent Management Centers (IMC’s) Intelligent Configuration Center and Access Control List (ACL) Manager align with which FCAPS category?

A.    Performance
B.    Fault
C.    Accounting
D.    Configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A customer wants to implement a network access control solution to ensure that only devices which meet company policies are allowed to access the network. Which HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC) modules should you recommend?

A.    Branch Intelligent Management System (BIMS) and Service Health Manager
B.    User Access Management (UAM) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
C.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
D.    User Behavior Analyzer (UBA) and Intelligent Analysis Reporter

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which switch series supports meshed stacking, a feature that is similar to Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)?

A.    HP 3500 Switch Series
B.    HP 3800 Switch Series
C.    HP 5400 21 Switch Series
D.    HP 5500 HI Switch Series

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://h30507.www3.hp.com/t5/HP-Networking/5-network-stacking-technology-benefits- Intelligent-Resilient/ba-p/122081#.UweFeUKSxHg

QUESTION 4
Which router would you recommend for a large campus that requires the highest performance?

A.    HP MSR930 Series
B.    HP MSR2000 Series
C.    HP HSR6600 Router Series
D.    HP HSR6800 Router Series

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://h17007.www1.hp.com/us/en/networking/products/routers/HP_HSR6800_Router_Series/ind ex.aspx

QUESTION 5
A company needs a data center network solution that isolates different departments’ traffic completely to maintain regulatory compliance. It also needs to save space and purchase as few physical switches as possible. Which HP FlexFabric switch technology meets these needs?

A.    HP Multitenant Device Context (MDC)
B.    HP Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)
C.    HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D.    HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2Fc03597043.pdf (page 73)
 

If you want to pass the HP HP2-Z28 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest HP HP2-Z28 Demo full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(71-80)!

QUESTION 71
Your company has three data centers. The data centers are located in Montreal, New York, and Seattle.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[24]
The organization is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[34]
The file share witness for DAG1 is located on EX3. You plan to implement site resiliency and use a single name space named mail.contoso.com. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of time that the Exchange Server services are unavailable if either the data center in Montreal or the data center in Seattle fails. Which two tasks should you recommend performing? (Each correct answer presents part of solution.
Choose two.)

A.    Deploy a hardware load balancer to EX3 and EX6.
B.    Create two DNS host (A) records for mail.contoso.com.
C.    Configure EX6 as an alternate file share witness.
D.    Move the file share witness to Server1.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 72
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy. The mode of the DLP policy is set to Enforce.
You need to ensure that email messages containing social security numbers from the United States are blocked.
Which two possible rules achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    U.S. State Breach: Allow Override
B.    U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – low count
C.    U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – high count
D.    U.S. State Breach: Scan text limit exceeded
E.    U.S. State Breach: Attachment not supported

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Note:
* In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, you can use data loss prevention (DLP) policy templates to help meet the messaging policy and compliance needs of your organization. These templates contain pre-built sets of rules that can help you manage message data that is associated with several common legal and regulatory requirements.
* DLP policy templates in Exchange include:
U.S. State Breach Notification Laws
Helps detect the presence of information subject to U.S. State Breach Notification Laws, including data like social security and credit card numbers.

QUESTION 73
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment. The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B.    Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C.    Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D.    Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E.    Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 74
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes.
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Export the administrator audit log.
B.    Run an administrator role group report.
C.    Export the mailbox audit log.
D.    Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E.    Review the security event log.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log.
/ The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

QUESTION 75
Hotspot Question
Your company implements Exchange Server 2013 Unified Messaging (UM).
The company uses an auto attendant.
You need to ensure that when calls are routed to the auto attendant, callers can press 0 to reach a receptionist.
Which option should you configure from the UM Auto Attendant window? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
 clip_image002[36]
Answer:
 clip_image002[38]

QUESTION 76
Hotspot Question
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image002[40]
SiteA contains an IP gateway that uses a dial plan named Dialplan1. SiteB contains a Lync Server 2013 server that uses a dial plan named Dialplan2. You plan to migrate all Unified Messaging (UM) functionalities to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to identify which tasks must be performed to complete the migration. Which tasks should you identify?
(To answer, select the tasks that are required and not required in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[26]
Answer:
 clip_image001[28]

QUESTION 77
Hotspot Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All users are enabled for Unified Messaging (UM) and access their voice mail by using Microsoft Lync 2010. Callers report that when they press a key to dial an external telephone number, they hear a message indicating that the intended destination cannot be reached.
You need to ensure that the callers can reach the external number successfully. What should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.
 clip_image002[42]
Answer:
 clip_image002[44]

QUESTION 78
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?

A.    Update-PublicFolderMailbox
B.    New-PublicFolderMoveRequest
C.    New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D.    Set-PublicFolderMailbox

Answer: B
Explanation:
* If the content of a public folder mailbox begins to exceed your mailbox quotas, you may need to move public folders to a different public folder mailbox. There are a couple ways to do this. To move one or more public folders that don’t contain subfolders, you can use the PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlets.
* Use the New-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to begin the process of moving public folder contents between public folder mailboxes. Moving public folders only moves the physical contents of the public folder; it doesn’t change the logical hierarchy. When the move request is completed, you must run the Remove-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to remove the request or wait until the time specified in the CompletedRequestAgeLimit parameter has passed. The request must be removed before you can run another move request.
Incorrect:
Not A: Use the Update-PublicFolderMailbox cmdlet to update the hierarchy for public folders.
Not C: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Reference: Move a Public Folder to a Different Public Folder Mailbox

QUESTION 79
Your company has three offices. Each office has 1,000 users and is configured as an Active Directory site. Each site connects directly to the Internet.
The network contains six servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[30]
An administrator performs a datacenter switchover by changing the DNS record for webl.adatum.com to point to the IP address of web2.adatum.com.
Users from Main1 report that when they connect to Outlook Web App, they receive a certificate warning message.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users do not receive a certificate warning message when a datacenter switchover is performed.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Three host headers for the Default Web Site on each Client Access server
B.    One certificate that contains all of the external names as subject alternative names
C.    Three certificates that each contains one of the external names
D.    An external URL for each Client Access server set to $null

Answer: B

QUESTION 80
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B.    On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C.    On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D.    On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E.    On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group
for all of the public folders.
F.    On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server Step 5: Start the migration request
Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server <Source server name>) -CSVData (Get-Content <Folder to mailbox map path> -Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required)
Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required) Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(61-70)!

QUESTION 61
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server organization named adatum.com. The organization contains servers that have Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The company executives require that all email messages remain stored for three years.
You create two retention tags named Ret1 and Ret2. Ret1 moves the email messages to an Archive mailbox after one year. Ret2 permanently deletes the email messages after three years.
You need to meet the company executives’ requirements. The solution must ensure that all email messages that are older than two years are removed as quickly as possible. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[12]
Answer:
 clip_image002[14]

QUESTION 62
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?

A.    Configure an in-place hold.
B.    Create an Archive mailbox.
C.    Configure a retention hold.
D.    Create a Retention tag.

Answer: A
Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.

QUESTION 63
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You have a database availability group (DAG) that contains four Exchange servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. The file share witness is on a server named Share1.
The organization has two Send connectors. The Send connectors are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[16]
Users report that email sent to external recipients is not being received. You discover that outbound email messages are queued on Server3 and Server4.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages queued on Server3 and Server4 are delivered to the Internet as quickly as possible.
What should you do?

A.    Modify the cost of External.
B.    Disable External1.
C.    Modify the list of source bridgehead servers of External2.
D.    Modify the cost of External1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Note:
* In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, a Send connector controls the flow of outbound messages to the receiving server.
* When a message is to be delivered to a remote delivery group, a routing path must be determined for the message. Exchange 2013 uses the same logic as Exchange 2010 to select the routing path for a message:
Calculate the least-cost routing path by adding the cost of the IP site links that must be traversed to reach the destination. If the destination is a connector, the cost assigned to the address space is added to the cost to reach the selected connector. If multiple routing paths are possible, the routing path with the lowest aggregate cost is used;
If more than one routing path has the same cost, the routing path with the least number of hops is used;
If more than one routing path is still available, the name assigned to the AD sites before the destination is considered. The routing path where the AD site nearest the destination is lowest in alphanumeric order is used. If the site nearest the destination is the same for all routing paths being evaluated, an earlier site name is considered.

QUESTION 64
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    the AD RMS cluster
B.    the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C.    the Active Directory domain controllers
D.    the Client Access servers
E.    the Mailbox servers
F.    the Global Catalog servers

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Certs require the CRL to be available and something to authenticate agains, aka the DCs.

QUESTION 65
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[18]
You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPIan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Create a UM hunt group
B.    Create a UM IP gateway.
C.    Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D.    Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX1 and EX2.
E.    Assign EX1 and EX2 to UMPIan1.
F.     Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPIan1.

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 66
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two Mailbox servers and two Client Access servers.
You have an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster. Information Rights Management (IRM) is enabled for the Exchange Server organization.
All company executives are in a security group named Execs. All of the executives use smartphones that are managed by using a mobile device mailbox policy. The executives frequently read IRM-protected email messages by using Microsoft Outlook.
You need to ensure that the executives can read the IRM-protected messages on their smartphone.
Which task should you perform in each environment? (To answer, drag the appropriate tasks to the correct environments. Each task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[16]
Answer:
 clip_image002[18]

QUESTION 67
Drag and Drop Question
Your company has two offices. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. The sites are named Site1 and Site2.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[20]
Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode is enabled on the database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You are testing a site failover by shutting down all of the servers in Site1.
You need to mount the databases in Site2. Which three commands should you run in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[22]
Answer:
 clip_image002[24]

QUESTION 68
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
Your company identifies the following security requirements:
– Users must be able to send encrypted email messages that can only be decrypted by the intended recipient.
– All email messages sent by a user named User1 to an external recipient must be protected by using TLS.
– All SMTP sessions to a remote SMTP host named SMTP1 must be encrypted.
You need to recommend which technology must be used to meet each requirement.
Which technologies should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the requirements in the answer area. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[26]
Answer:
 clip_image002[28]

QUESTION 69
Hotspot Question
Your company has a main office and a disaster recovery site. An Active Directory site named MainSite exists for the main office. An Active Directory site named DRSite exists for the disaster recovery site. The two sites connect to each other by using a WAN link. All users work in the main office.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The organization contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[20]
All of the Mailbox servers are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1.
After a WAN link failure, you discover that all of the active mailbox database copies are located on MBX3, even though MBX1 and MBX2 are still running. You need to prevent an automatic failover of DAG1 if the WAN link between the two sites fails but the servers in both sites are still running. The solution must prevent two active copies of the same database.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
 clip_image002[30]
Answer:
 clip_image002[32]

QUESTION 70
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[22]
Microsoft Outlook is configured to connect to an FQDN of mail.adatum.com. Mail.adatum.com resolves to the IP address of a Layer 7 hardware load balancer. The hardware load balancer is configured to send traffic to EX2 and EX3.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server and an Exchange Server 2013 Client Access server.
You plan to migrate all mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can access their mailbox on EX1 or EX4 during the migration.
What should you do?

A.    Create a Client Access server array that contains EX1 and EX5.
B.    Modify the autodiscover.contoso.com resource record to point to EX5.
C.    Modify the properties of the hardware load balancer to point to EX5.
D.    Create a DNS record named legacy.contoso.com in the internal DNS zone.

Answer: C

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(51-60)!

QUESTION 51
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 database availability group (DAG). Each member of the DAG has two network interfaces named Network1 and Network2. Network1 is used for client connections. Network2 is used for database replication.
Network2 fails.
You discover that replication traffic is sent over Network1.
You need to ensure that all of the database replication traffic is sent over Network2. The solution must minimize database replication downtime.
Which three actions should you perform?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]
Explanation:
Box 1: Run the Suspend-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet.
Box 2: Restore the connectivity to Network2.
Box 3: Run the Resume-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet.
Note:
* You may need to suspend or resume a database copy for a variety of reasons, such as maintenance on the disk that contains a database copy, or suspend an individual database copy from activation for disaster recovery purposes.
This example suspends continuous replication for a copy of the database DB1 hosted on the server MBX1. An optional comment has also been specified.
Suspend-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1 -SuspendComment “Maintenance on MBX1” – Confirm:$False
This example resumes a copy of the database DB1 on the server MBX1.
Resume-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1
Reference: Suspend or Resume a Mailbox Database Copy

QUESTION 52
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2. EX1 fails. You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2. You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[4]
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?

A.    The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B.    The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C.    The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D.    The activation preference of DB1\EX1

Answer: B
Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device

QUESTION 53
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami.
The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG).
The DAG contains servers in both data centers.
The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users.
You configure the following:
– All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
– All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com.
– In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following:
– A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com
– Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com
You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements:
– Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located.
– Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?

A.    Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B.    Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C.    Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D.    Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet to set specific global settings using the msExchOutlookProvider attribute on the msExchAutoDiscoverConfig object in Active Directory.
A – wrong because that would only confuse the DNS resolution and not allow clients to connect to their site
B – Correct – this is the only answer that specifies an external URL specific to each site
C – wrong because the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet is Organization wide and not site-specific
D – wrong because this deals with free/busy information and not Outlook Anywhere connectivity
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb123683%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 54
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[6]
You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[8]
Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C.    Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot
identifiers.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account.
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.

QUESTION 55
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[10]
You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server.
Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    EX1
B.    EX2
C.    EX3
D.    EX4
E.    EX5

Answer: CDE
Explanation:
Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
Reference: Configuring Unified Messaging on Microsoft Exchange Server to Work with Lync Server 2013
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa996399%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 56
Drag and Drop Question
You have a server that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You plan to configure Unified Messaging (UM) to connect to an IP-PBX.
A telecommunications administrator configures the following numbers on the IP-PBX:
– First extension number: 12100
– Last extension number: 12499
– Help extension number: 12500
– Incoming pilot number: 12000
You need to configure UM to support the following requirements:
– Users must be able to use Outlook Voice Access.
– Users must be able to receive voice mail when callers connect to the users’ extension.
– Callers must be able to dial into an automated help system hosted by your company, which uses standard menus and speech-enabled menus.
Which numbers should you use for the UM configurations?
To answer, drag the appropriate number to the correct UM object in the answer area. Each number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
 clip_image001[12]
Answer:
 clip_image001[14]
Explanation:
Box 1: 12000
Box 2: 12500
Box 3: 12000
Note:
* An Outlook Voice Access number lets a user who is enabled for Unified Messaging (UM) and voice mail access their mailbox using Outlook Voice Access. When you configure an Outlook Voice Access or subscriber access number on a dial plan, UM-enabled users can call in to the number, sign in to their mailbox, and access their email, voice mail, calendar, and personal contact information. By default, when you create a UM dial plan, an Outlook Voice Access number isn’t configured. To configure an Outlook Voice Access number, you first need to create the dial plan, and then configure an Outlook Voice Access number under the dial plan’s Outlook Voice Access option. Although an Outlook Voice Access number isn’t required, you need to configure at least one Outlook Voice Access number to enable a UM-enabled user to use Outlook Voice Access to access to their Exchange 2013 mailbox. You can configure multiple Outlook Voice Access numbers for a single dial plan.
* After you create a Unified Messaging (UM) auto attendant, incoming calls to an external telephone number that a human operator would ordinarily answer are answered by the auto attendant. Unlike with other Unified Messaging components, such as UM dial plans and UM IP gateways, you aren’t required to create UM auto attendants. However, auto attendants help internal and external callers locate users or departments that exist in an organization and transfer calls to them.
* Hunt group is a term used to describe a group of Private Branch eXchange (PBX) or IP PBX extension numbers that are shared by users. Hunt groups are used to efficiently distribute calls into or out of a specific business unit. Creating and defining a hunt group minimizes the chance that a caller who places an incoming call will receive a busy signal when the call is received. In a telephony network, a PBX or an IP PBX can be configured to have a single hunt group or multiple hunt groups. Each hunt group created on a PBX or IP PBX must have an associated pilot number. Using a pilot number helps to eliminate busy signals and to route incoming calls to the extension numbers that are available. The PBX or IP PBX uses the pilot number to locate the hunt group and in turn to locate the telephone extension number on which the incoming call was received and the extensions that are assigned to the hunt group. Without a defined pilot number, the PBX or IP PBX can’t locate where the incoming call was received.
Reference: Create a UM Auto Attendant

QUESTION 57
Drag and Drop Question
You are an administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd. The company is an international reseller that has offices worldwide. One of the offices is located in France.
Each office contains several servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The Exchange Server organization is configured for Unified Messaging (UM). Each office contains an IP-PBX device.
You need to ensure that callers to the France office can navigate the voice mail system menu in French.
In which order should you perform the actions?
To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[6]
Answer:
 clip_image002[8]
Explanation:
Box 1: Install the French UM Language Pack on the Servers in the French office.
Box 2: Create a dial plan named ContosoFrance.
Box 3: Create a UM Hunt Group.
Box 4: Create a UM Auto Attendant named ContosoFranceAA.
Box 5: Assign the ContosoFrance Dial Plan to the users in the France office.

QUESTION 58
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size. You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?

A.    Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B.    Set-MailPublicFolder
C.    Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D.    Set-PublicFolderMailbox

Answer: A
Explanation:
* Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
Splits the given public folder mailbox based on the size of the folders.
* If the content of a public folder mailbox begins to exceed your mailbox quotas, you may need to move public folders to a different public folder mailbox. There are a couple ways to do this. To move one or more public folders that don’t contain subfolders, you can use the PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlets.
Reference: Move a Public Folder to a Different Public Folder Mailbox

QUESTION 59
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365. The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed. A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out. You verify that the mailbox of User2 is hosted on Office 365. You need to unlock the account of User1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-MailUser
B.    Set-MSolUser
C.    Set-Mailbox
D.    Set-ADUser

Answer: B
Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential <Boolean>
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online

QUESTION 60
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365. The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server.
Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses. A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records.
Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users.
You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the
Office 365 users. Which tool should you use?

A.    The Exchange Management Console
B.    The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C.    The Exchange Admin Center
D.    The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer

Answer: C
Explanation:
Note:
* The section describes the user interface elements that are common across the EAC (Exchange Admin Center).
 clip_image002[10]

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

Official 2014 Latest Cisco 010-151 Demo Free Download!

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

If you want to pass the Cisco 010-15 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 010-151 Demo full version.

clip_image001

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(41-50)!

QUESTION 41
You are evaluating the deployment of two additional Client Access servers and a hardware load balancer in the London office.
You need to recommend changes to the Client Access namespace design to meet the site resiliency requirements.
Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    In the London office, set mail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set mail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
B.    In the London office, set ionmail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set nycmail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
C.    Use DNS round robin for the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
D.    Use DNS round robin for the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
E.    In the London office, set nycmail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set ionmail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
F.    In the London office, set mail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set mail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A: Use mail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere at both locations.
B: Use internal names (lonmail.proseware.com and nycmail.proseware.com) as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere in London and New York respectively.
C: To meet the resiliency requirement use the external host name (mail.proseware.com) for DNS round robin for Outlook anywhere.
* From scenario:
/ Users connect to mail.proseware.com for Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App services. Mail.proseware.com resolves to an IP address on a hardware load balancer.
/ All Outlook Anywhere users are enabled for Cached Exchange Mode.
/ Proseware has two main offices located in New York and London.
/
Site Resiliency Requirements
– All mailboxes must be available if a single site becomes unavailable. The solution must not require administrator intervention.
– User traffic on the WAN links must be minimized.
* Split DNS for Exchange Server 2013
Split DNS allows your internal clients to receive a different answer to their DNS lookups than an external client would receive. In effect you have your Exchange namespace hosted on your internal DNS server, with records configured to point to internal IP addresses.

QUESTION 42
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for redundancy during email delivery.
Which cmdlet should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Set-FrontendTransportService
B.    Set-TransportConfig
C.    Set-MailboxTransportService
D.    Set-TransportService

Answer: B
Explanation:
 

QUESTION 43
Hotspot Question
You need to recommend which technology can be used to meet each email security requirement.
What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate technology for each requirement in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[28]
Answer:
 clip_image002[56]

QUESTION 44
Drag and Drop Question
You need to recommend a solution to support the planned changes for the integration of the Exchange Server organizations of Contoso and Proseware.
What should you configure in each organization? (To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct forests. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[58]
Answer:
 clip_image002[60]
QUESTION 45
You need to resolve the content filtering issue for the Office 365 pilot users.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -MaxBiockedSenders and the -MicrosoftOnlineServicesID
parameters.
B.    Run the Microsoft Online Services Directory Synchronization Configuration Wizard and select Enable
Exchange hybrid deployment.
C.    Modify the default content filter policy from the Office 365 portal.
D.    Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -MaxSafeSenders and the -MicrosoftOnlineServicesID
parameters.

Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Hotspot Question
You need to recommend a solution to audit the issue of User1.
Which command should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

 clip_image002[62]
Answer:
 clip_image002[64]
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb123981(v=exchg.150).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb676368(v=exchg.141).aspx

QUESTION 47
You discover that the Large Audience MailTip is not displayed when users compose an email message to the 20 new distribution groups.
You need to ensure that the Large Audience MailTip is displayed for the new distribution groups immediately.
Which cmdlet should you use?

A.    Set-DistributionGroup
B.    Set-MailboxServer
C.    Set-ClientAccessServer
D.    Start-ManagedFolderAssistant

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj674302(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 48
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Information Rights Management (IRM) configured.
Users report that they cannot apply IRM protection to email messages from Outlook Web App.
You verify that the users can protect the messages by using IRM from Microsoft Outlook. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users can protect email messages by using IRM from Outlook Web App.
Which four actions should you recommend? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[66]
Answer:
 clip_image002[68]
Explanation:
Box 1: Create a distribution group named Group1.
Box 2: Add the Microsoft Exchange Federation Mailbox user account to Group1.
Box 3: Enable the super users group and set the group to Group1.
Box 4: Run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet.
Note:
* To enable IRM in Outlook Web App, you must add the Federation mailbox, a system mailbox created by Exchange 2013 Setup, to the super users group in AD RMS.
*
Step 1: Use the Shell to add the Federation mailbox to a distribution group If a distribution group has been created and configured as a super users group in the AD RMS cluster, you can add the Exchange 2013 Federation mailbox as a member of that group. If a super users group isn’t configured, you must create a distribution group and add the Federation mailbox as a member.
1.Create a distribution group dedicated for use as an AD RMS super users group.
2. Add the user FederatedEmail.4c1f4d8b-8179-4148-93bf-00a95fa1e042 to the new distribution group.
Step 2: Use AD RMS to set up a super users group
Perform the following procedure on an AD RMS cluster. The account used to perform this procedure must be a member of the AD RMS Enterprise Administrators local group on the AD RMS server.
1. Open the Active Directory Rights Management Services console and expand the AD RMS cluster.
2. In the console tree, expand Security Policies, and then click Super Users.
3. In the action pane, click Enable Super Users.
4. In the result pane, click Change Super User Group to open the Super Users property sheet.
5. In the Super user group box, type the email address of the distribution group you created in the previous procedure, or click Browse to select a distribution group.
* Information workers increasingly use e-mail to exchange sensitive information. To help secure this information, organizations can use Information Rights Management (IRM) to apply persistent protection to messaging content. Prior to Microsoft Exchange Server 2010, effective use of IRM protection was limited to Outlook clients. In Exchange Server 2007, Microsoft Outlook Web Access users were required to download the Rights Management add-in for Microsoft Internet Explorer so they could access IRM-protected content.
In Exchange 2013, IRM in Outlook Web App allows your users to access the rich IRM functionality offered by Exchange to apply persistent IRM-protection to messaging content. Reference: Information Rights Management in Outlook Web App
Reference: Add the Federation Mailbox to the AD RMS Super Users Group

QUESTION 49
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?

A.    On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekey
exportable parameter.
B.    On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdiet.
C.    On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdiet and specify the binaryencoded
parameter.
D.    On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998327%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 50
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabnkam, Inc., are partner companies.
Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed.
The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link.
The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
– Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
– Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
– Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
– Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create the following DNS records:
Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B.    Create the following DNS records:
Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C.    For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D.    For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E.    Create the following DNS records:
Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: Use a priority above 10.
C:
* When you configure an internal relay domain, some or all of the recipients in this domain don’t have mailboxes in this Exchange organization. Mail from the Internet is relayed for this domain through Transport servers in this Exchange organization.
* An organization may have to share the same SMTP address space between two or more different messaging systems. For example, you may have to share the SMTP address space between Exchange and a third-party messaging system, or between Exchange environments that are configured in different Active Directory forests. In these scenarios, users in each email system have the same domain suffix as part of their email addresses. To support these scenarios, you need to create an accepted domain that’s configured as an internal relay domain. You also need to add a Send connector that’s sourced on a Mailbox server and configured to send email to the shared address space. If an accepted domain is configured as authoritative and a recipient isn’t found in Active Directory, a non- delivery report (NDR) is returned to the sender. The accepted domain that’s configured as an internal relay domain first tries to deliver to a recipient in the Exchange organization. If the recipient isn’t found, the message is routed to the Send connector that has the closest address space match.
Incorrect:
D: When you configure an external relay domain, messages are relayed to an email server that’s outside your Exchange organization and outside the organization’s network perimeter.

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(31-40)!

QUESTION 31
Drag and Drop Question
You need to recommend a solution that supports the planned changes for the public folders.
Which four cmdlets should you recommend running in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[36]
Answer:
 clip_image002[38]

QUESTION 32
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for email messages that contain information about the Fabrikam acquisition.
Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Create an Outlook protection rule.
B.    Create a new custom message classification.
C.    Modify the registry on all client computers.
D.    Modify the Content Filtering settings.
E.    Export the Message Classification configuration to an .xml file.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: Use the New-MessageClassification cmdlet to create a message classification instance in your organization.
E: After you create a new message classification, you can specify the message classification as a transport rule predicate. Before Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App users can apply the message classification to messages, you must update the end-user systems with the message classification XML file created by the Export- OutlookClassification.ps1 script file. The Export-OutlookClassification.ps1 script file is located in the %ExchangeInstallPath%Scripts directory.
C: Microsoft Office Outlook requires a local file (Classifications.xml) that contains definitions of the message classifications that Microsoft Exchange Server supports before Outlook users can apply message classifications to their messages. You must also create a registry key that enables message classification and references the Classifications.xml file on the Outlook user’s computer.
* From scenario:
Compliance Requirements include:
Users must use a custom message classification when they send email messages that contain information about the planned acquisition of Fabrikam.

QUESTION 33
You need to implement a solution that meets the collaboration requirements.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Set-CASMailbox cmdlet.
B.    Create an organization relationship.
C.    Create a new sharing policy.
D.    Modify the organization configuration.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd876946(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 34
Hotspot Question
You need to configure the Exchange Server UM dial plan for the planned integration of UM and Lync Server.
How should you configure the UM dial plan? (To answer, select the appropriate dial plan type and VoIP security mode in the answer area.)

 clip_image001[16]
Answer:
 clip_image001[18]

QUESTION 35
Hotspot Question
You are attempting to resolve the email delivery issue for Fabrikam.
You need to identify which certificate is being used by the servers in the Exchange Server organization of Fabrikam.
In which directory on EX1 should you review the log files? (To answer, select the appropriate directory in the answer area.)
 clip_image002[40]
Answer:
 clip_image001[20]

QUESTION 36
Drag and Drop Question
You restore the files of DB3 to EX3.
You need to mount DB3 on EX3. The solution must ensure that email messages sent to the users of DB3 while the database was offline are delivered once DB3 is mounted.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image001[22]
Answer:
 clip_image002[42]

QUESTION 37
You need to implement a solution that meets the compliance requirements for the members of the legal department.
Which two cmdlets should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    New-RoleAssignmentPolicy
B.    Add-ManagementRoleEntry
C.    New-ManagementRole Assignment
D.    New-ManagementRole
E.    New-ManagementScope

Answer: AC
Explanation:
No need to create a new management role, it already exists in Exchange 2013.

Case Study 4: Proseware, Inc (QUESTION 38 ~ QUESTION 47)
Overview
General Overview
Proseware, Inc., is an international manufacturing company that has 1,000 users. Proseware has a sales department, a marketing department, a research department, and a human resources department. Proseware purchases another company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has 500 users.
Physical Locations
Proseware has two main offices located in New York and London.
The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.
Contoso has a single office in Dallas.
Existing Environment
Active Directory Environment
The Proseware network contains an Active Directory forest named proseware.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012.
Each office contains three domain controllers. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site.
The Contoso network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012.
Exchange Server Organization
Proseware has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[24]
EX3 and EX4 are the members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 has two DAG networks. The networks are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[26]
Users connect to mail.proseware.com for Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App services. Mail.proseware.com resolves to an IP address on a hardware load balancer. All Outlook Anywhere users are enabled for Cached Exchange Mode.
Proseware pilots a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365. The mailbox of each pilot user is moved to Office 365. For the pilot mailboxes, all inbound email messages from the Internet are delivered to the Exchange Server organization, and then forwarded to Office 365.
Contoso has an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
Problem Statements
Proseware identifies the following issues:
– MapiNet is saturated with network traffic caused by the database replication between the members of DAG1 over MapiNet.
– The pilot users report that entries added to their Safe Senders list and their Blocked Senders list
fail to work.
– A recent power outage in the New York office prevents all users from accessing their mailbox.
– A user named User1 reports that email messages are being sent from her mailbox without her consent.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Proseware plans to implement the following changes:
– Several users at Contoso will use a mailbox at Proseware as their primary mailbox. The Contoso users will use Autodiscover to configure their client settings and will use single sign-on.
– For a special project, an IT administrator will create 20 distribution groups that will each contain 200 members.
– Certain users in both companies will have a ©contoso.com SMTP suffix as their primary email address.
Technical Requirements
Proseware identifies the following technical requirements for the Exchange Server organization:
– Internal email messages must be rejected if the messages cannot be protected by using Shadow Redundancy.
– All database replication between DAG1 members must occur over the Rep1Net network.
Site Resiliency Requirements
Proseware identifies the following site resiliency requirements for the Exchange Server organization:
– All mailboxes must be available if a single site becomes unavailable. The solution must not require administrator intervention.
– User traffic on the WAN links must be minimized.
Email Security Requirements
Proseware identifies the following requirements for securing email messages:
– Email recipients must be able to identify whether an email message was modified during delivery.
– All email messages stored in the mailbox databases must be protected from theft.
– Users must be able to encrypt email messages from Outlook Web App.
Retention Requirements
Proseware plans to reduce mailbox server storage usage and to limit company liability. Proseware identifies the following requirements:
– Email messages in the Deleted Items folder must be retained for only 30 days.
– Email messages in a mailbox folder named Projects must be retained for 540 days, unless the messages contain contractual information.
– Email messages in the Projects folder that contain contractual information must be retained indefinitely.
– All other email messages must be removed after one year.

QUESTION 38
Drag and Drop Question
You need to resolve the network traffic issue for MapiNet. You suspend database replication.
Which three cmdlets should you run next in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[44]
Answer:
 clip_image002[46]

QUESTION 39
Drag and Drop Question
You are preparing the environment for the planned retention solution.
You need to identify which policy tags must be created to meet the retention requirements.
Which policy tag types should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate policy tag types to the correct message types. Each policy tag tag may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[48]
Answer:
 clip_image002[50]

QUESTION 40
Drag and Drop Question
You need to implement UM for the sales department users.
Which four commands should you run in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[52]
Answer:
 clip_image002[54]

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

1 257 258 259 260